A coffee supply store waits until the orders for its special coffee blend reach 100 pounds before making up a batch. coffee selling for $11.85 a pound is blended with coffee selling for $2.85 a pound to make a product that sells for $5.55 a pound. how much of each type of coffee should be used to make the blend that will fill the orders?

The derivative of the expression y = ln ((15x² + 4x)⁵ (4x² – 2x)) is (120x - 10)/(3x + 1) (15x² + 4x)⁴.

To find the derivative of this expression, we'll need to use the chain rule and product rule. The chain rule allows us to find the derivative of a function inside another function, while the product rule allows us to find the derivative of two functions multiplied together.

Let's start by using the product rule to differentiate the expression inside the natural logarithm:

(15x² + 4x)⁵ (4x² – 2x) = f(x)g(x)

f(x) = (15x² + 4x)⁵ g(x) = (4x² – 2x)

f'(x) = 5(15x² + 4x)⁴ (30x + 4)

Now, we can use the product rule:

y = ln(f(x)g(x))

y' = 1/(f(x)g(x)) (f(x)g'(x) + g(x)f'(x))

y' = 1/((15x² + 4x)⁵ (4x² – 2x)) ((15x² + 4x)⁵(8x-2) + (4x² - 2x)5(15x² + 4x)⁴ (30x + 4))

Simplifying, we get:

y' = (120x - 10)/(3x + 1) (15x² + 4x)⁴

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The paper clip costs $0.05 and the folder Costs $1.00 more, which is $1.05. Together, they add up to the total of $1.10.

Let's solve this problem step by step:

Let's assume the cost of the paper clip is x dollars.

According to the information given, the folder costs $1.00 more than the paper clip, so the cost of the folder would be (x + $1.00).

The total cost of the folder and the paper clip is $1.10, so we can write the equation:

x + (x + $1.00) = $1.10

Combining like terms, we have:

2x + $1.00 = $1.10

Subtracting $1.00 from both sides of the equation, we get:

2x = $0.10

Dividing both sides by 2, we find the value of x:

x = $0.10 / 2

x = $0.05

Therefore, the paper clip costs $0.05.

In summary, the paper clip costs $0.05 and the folder costs $1.00 more, which is $1.05. Together, they add up to the total of $1.10.

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Answer:

y+12=m

Step-by-step explanation:

m (marys mangos)

Answer:

Mary's mangoes = y + 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's assume that,

→ Mary's mangoes = x

→ Jason's mangoes = y

The information given,

→ Mary has 12 more mangoes than Jason and Jason has y mangoes.

Now we have to,

→ find the mangoes Mary has now.

Forming the equation,

→ Mary's = Jason's + 12

→ [ x = y + 12 ]

Hence, the answer is x = y + 12.

The probability of meeting at least one person with the flu in twelve random encounters on campus when the infection rate is 4% is 0.391 or approximately 39.1%.

To determine the probability of meeting at least one person with the flu in twelve random encounters on campus when the infection rate is 4%, we can use the binomial distribution formula:
P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)
where X is the number of people with the flu in twelve random encounters, and P(X = 0) is the probability of meeting zero people with the flu.

The probability of meeting zero people with the flu in one random encounter is:
P(X = 0) = (96/100)^1 * (4/100)^0 = 0.96
where 96/100 represents the probability of not meeting someone with the flu, and 4/100 represents the probability of meeting someone with the flu.
Therefore, the probability of meeting at least one person with the flu in twelve random encounters is:
P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)
P(X ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.96^12
P(X ≥ 1) = 0.391

Therefore, the probability of meeting at least one person with the flu in twelve random encounters on campus when the infection rate is 4% is 0.391 or approximately 39.1%.

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Consider the Fourier series for the periodic function: x(t) = 2sin^2(t) + cos(4t). The Fourier coefficient C₁ of the exponential series is: the correct answer is b. 0.

To find the Fourier coefficient C₁ of the exponential series for the given periodic function x(t) = 2sin^2(t) + cos(4t), we need to evaluate the integral of x(t)e^(-jωt) over one period, where ω is the angular frequency.

The Fourier coefficient C₁ is given by:

C₁ = (1/T) ∫[0,T] x(t)e^(-jωt) dt

Since x(t) is periodic with period T = 2π, we can integrate over one period from 0 to 2π:

C₁ = (1/2π) ∫[0,2π] (2sin^2(t) + cos(4t))e^(-jωt) dt

To evaluate this integral, we need to consider the terms individually:

∫[0,2π] sin^2(t)e^(-jωt) dt = π if ω = 0, and 0 for ω ≠ 0

∫[0,2π] cos(4t)e^(-jωt) dt = 0 for all values of ω

Since ω is not zero for C₁, the contribution from sin^2(t)e^(-jωt) term is zero. The only remaining term is cos(4t)e^(-jωt), which integrates to zero for all values of ω.

Therefore, C₁ = 0.

So the correct answer is b. 0.

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Answer:

y=3

Step-by-step explanation:

m=0

b=3

Answer:

0.4 or 40 Cents.

Step-by-step explanation:

1.20/3 = 0.4

The volume of oil exiting the pipe is approximately 100 cu in/hr, 2,400 cu in/day, and 1.39 cu ft/day when converting cu in/day to cubic feet per day.



To calculate the volume of oil exiting the pipe every hour, you would need to know the flow rate of the oil in cubic inches per hour. Let's assume the flow rate is 100 cubic inches per hour.To find the volume of oil exiting the pipe every day, you would multiply the flow rate by the number of hours in a day. There are 24 hours in a day, so the volume of oil exiting the pipe every day would be 100 cubic inches per hour multiplied by 24 hours, which equals 2,400 cubic inches per day.

To convert the volume from cubic inches per day to cubic feet per day, you would need to divide the volume in cubic inches by the number of cubic inches in a cubic foot. There are 1,728 cubic inches in a cubic foot. So, dividing 2,400 cubic inches per day by 1,728 cubic inches per cubic foot, we get approximately 1.39 cubic feet per day.

Therefore, the volume of oil exiting the pipe is approximately 100 cubic inches per hour, 2,400 cubic inches per day, and 1.39 cubic feet per day.

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Answer:

\(126\frac{6}{19}\) £

Step-by-step explanation:

£1 = €1.14  /\(*\frac{144}{1.14}\)

£\(\frac{144}{1.14}\)=144€= \(126\frac{6}{19} \\\)£

The required arc length of sector VW is 8\(\pi\).

Given that, in a circle U, radius  UV = 9 and  central angle of sector m∠VUW = 160°.

To find the arc length of sector VW, we can use the formula:

Arc length = (central angle / 360) x circumference of the circle.

First,  find the circumference of the circle by the  formula for the circumference of a circle is given by:

Circumference = 2 x \(\pi\) x radius.

Circumference = 2 x \(\pi\) x 9 = 18π.

Now, let's find the arc length of sector VW using the central angle of 160 degrees:

Arc length = (160/360) x 18π

Arc length = (4/9) * 18\(\pi\) = 8\(\pi\).

Therefore, the arc length of sector VW is 8\(\pi\).

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Answer:

r = 112

Hope This Helps! If you need a step-by-step let me know!

This means that a linear relationship exists among the variables.

When the data points on a scatterplot cluster along a straight line, it indicates that there is a linear relationship between the two variables being plotted.

The scatterplot visually shows that as one variable increases or decreases, the other variable also increases or decreases in a proportional manner, following a straight-line pattern.

The correlation coefficient is an estimation of the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables. A positive correlation coefficient indicates that as one variable increases, the other variable also increases, while a negative correlation coefficient indicates that as one variable increases, the other decreases.

The magnitude of the coefficient implies the strength of the relationship, with a value of 1 showing a perfect positive correlation and a value of -1 showing a perfect negative correlation.

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--The given question is incomplete; the complete question is

"A student conducting a research study was told by her professor to use a scatterplot in conjunction with calculating the correlation coefficient. She discovered that the data points clustered along a straight line; this means that:  

A. The student cannot determine if a relationship exists.

B. No relationship exists between variables.

C. A nonlinear relationship exists among the variables.

D. A linear relationship exists among the variables."--

Answer:

\(A=2\times25\times 44+14\times44+2\times\frac{14\times24}{2} =3152\; cm^2\)

The surface area of the triangular prism is 3152 square cm if the  base of the prism is an isosceles triangle.

When a triangle is, stretch it out to produce a stack of triangles, one on top of the other. A triangular prism is the name given to this novel 3D object.

We have a triangular prism, is showing in the picture:

Here  a = 25

b = 25

c = 14

h = 44

The surface area of the triangular prism is given by:

\(\rm A=ah+bh+ch+\dfrac{1}{2}\sqrt{-a^4+2(ab)^2+2(ac)^2-b^4+2(bc)^2-c^4]\)

Plug all the values in the formula we get:

A = 3152 square cm

Thus, the surface area of the triangular prism is 3152 square cm if the  base of the prism is an isosceles triangle.

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Answer:

1. irrational 2. rational 3. irrational 4. irrational

This pyramid has the same base as the prism and its height is three times the height of the prism. What is the ratio of the volume of the

pyramid to the volume of the prism?

1

A} volume of Pyramid

volume of priam

B} volume of pyramid

volume of priuam

C} volume of pyramid

volume of priim

D} Volume of pyramid

volume of

prime

____________________________________________

volume of the prism

Answer:

2 or \( \log_{12} 144 \)

Step-by-step explanation:

I assume 12 is the base.

\( \log_{12} 18 + 3 \log_{12} 2 = \)

\( = \log_{12} 18 + \log_{12} 2^3 \)

\( = \log_{12} (18 \times 8) \)

\( = \log_{12} 144 \)

\( = \log_{12} 12^2 \)

\( = 2\log_{12} 12 \)

\( = 2 \)

The entire expression simplifies to 2, but if you need the simplest log expression, then you can use

\( \log_{12} 144 \)

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation: graph b

The formula to calculate the expected loss is given by the following formula: Expected Loss = Σ (Loss Amount * Probability of Loss)To calculate the expected loss, we need to first multiply the loss amount with the probability of loss, and then add the products.

a. $0 .30Loss amount, X = $0Probability of loss, P(X) = 0.30Expected loss = 0 * 0.3 = $0b. $120 .50Loss amount, X = $120Probability of loss, P(X) = 0.50Expected loss = 120 * 0.5 = $60c. $200 .20Loss amount, X = $200Probability of loss, P(X) = 0.20Expected loss = 200 * 0.2 = $40, the expected loss for the given probabilities of various losses is $0 for a), $60 for b) and $40 for c). The total expected loss would be the sum of all expected losses i.e. $100.

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Answer:

  A. one along the x-axis, and one along the y-axis

Step-by-step explanation:

For any kind of a plot, one variable is displayed along each axis.

__

A scatter plot has variables displayed one along the x-axis, and one along the y-axis.

Answer:

A. one along the x-axis, and one along the y-axis

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge 2023

Answer:

23mm

Step-by-step explanation:

\(area = \frac{1}{2} bh\)

\(184 {mm}^{2} \: = \: \frac{1}{2} \times 16mm \: \times \: b\)

\(184 {mm}^{2} = \frac{16}{2} mm \times b\)

\(184 {mm}^{2} = \: 8mm \: \times \: b\)

\( \frac{184 {mm}^{2} }{8mm} = \: \frac{8mm}{8mm} \times b\)

\(b = 23mm\)

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The required expression would be 18 + 56/(15/3) - 64 which represents subtracting 64 from the sum of 18 and 56 divided by the quotient of 15 and 3.

A quotient is defined as the outcome of dividing an integer by any divisor that can be said to be a quotient. The dividend contains the divisor a specific number of times.

To determine the expression which represents subtract 64 from the sum of 18 and 56 divided by the quotient of 15 and 3.

As per the given condition, we can write the word problem as an expression like this:

⇒ 18 + 56/(15/3) - 64

Hence, the required expression would be 18 + 56/(15/3) - 64.

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The correlation coefficient (r) measures the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables. The value of r ranges from -1 to +1, where a value of -1 indicates a perfect negative correlation, +1 indicates a perfect positive correlation, and 0 indicates no correlation.

The correlation coefficient's sign will not change when the order of the variables in a correlation study is changed, but the coefficient's numerical value might. This is due to the symmetry of the correlation coefficient with regard to the two variables under comparison.

For instance, if you calculate the correlation coefficient between X and Y and the result is r = 0.7, it indicates that Y tends to rise as X does. The correlation coefficient between the variables Y and X will have the same sign (+ or -) but a different numerical value if the variables are computed in a different order.

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The graph of a tangent function in the form y = atan(bx − c) + d has a period of pi/|b|. When b = 1/2, the period is pi. This means that the graph will repeat itself every pi units on the x-axis. The correct option is the second graph.

The graph of the tangent function in the first option has a period of 2pi. This is not consistent with the period of a tangent function with b = 1/2.

The graph of the tangent function in the second option has a period of pi. This is consistent with the period of a tangent function with b = 1/2.

The graph of the tangent function in the third option does not have a period of pi. This is not consistent with the period of a tangent function with b = 1/2.

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the perimeter of the new pentagon is 320/7 inches.

If a regular pentagon is dilated by a scale factor of 8/7, all its sides will be multiplied by 8/7. Since the original pentagon has a perimeter of 28 inches, each side of the original pentagon has a length of 28/5 inches (since a regular pentagon has 5 equal sides).

Now, let's find the perimeter of the new pentagon after dilation. Since each side of the original pentagon is multiplied by 8/7, the new pentagon's sides will have a length of (8/7) * (28/5) inches.

Perimeter of the new pentagon = (Number of sides) * (Length of each side)

                            = 5 * [(8/7) * (28/5)]

                            = 40 * (8/7)

                            = 320/7

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The measurements of AB = 20 in and AC = 10 in

Triangles that are similar to each other have corresponding sides that are proportional to one another and corresponding angles that are equal to one another.

Triangles with similar appearances can have varying diameters. In a set of similar triangles, the ratio of corresponding sides will be equal.

Here we have

Two Similar  triangles ABC and CDE  

Since the two triangles are Similar

=> AB/DE = AC/EC = BC/DC

Substitute each measurement of the sides

=> AB/16  = AC/8 = 15/12  

Take, AB/16 = 15/12  

=> AB/16 = 5/4

=> AB = 5(16)/4

=> AB = 20 in  

Take AC/8 = 15/12  

=> AC = 15(8)/12

=> AC = 15(2)/3

=> AC = 10

Therefore,

The measurements of AB = 20 in and AC = 10 in

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Answer:       0.3

Step-by-step explanation:        I took the test

It will take approximately 39.532 days for $9500 to earn $800 at an annual interest rate of 8.25%.

To find the number of days it will take for $9500 to earn $800 at an annual interest rate of 8.25%, we need to use the formula for simple interest:

Interest = Principal * Rate * Time

In this case, we are given the interest ($800), the principal ($9500), and the annual interest rate (8.25%). We need to solve for time.

Let's denote the time in years as "t". Since we're looking for the number of days, we'll convert the time to a fraction of a year by dividing by 365 (assuming a standard 365-day year).

$800 = $9500 * 0.0825 * (t / 365)

Simplifying the equation:

800 = 9500 * 0.0825 * (t / 365)

Divide both sides by (9500 * 0.0825):

800 / (9500 * 0.0825) = t / 365

Simplify the left side:

800 / (9500 * 0.0825) ≈ 0.1083

Now, solve for t by multiplying both sides by 365:

0.1083 * 365 ≈ t

t ≈ 39.532

Therefore, it will take approximately 39.532 days for $9500 to earn $800 at an annual interest rate of 8.25%.

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Answer:

Huh. I don't really see the question at hand.

Answer:

m=3/4

Step-by-step explanation: