Answers
Heart disease is the leading cause of death in older adults, followed by cancer. Chronic obstructive lung disease and cerebrovascular accidents are also common causes of death in older adults, but less so than heart disease and cancer.
Heart diseaseCancerChronic obstructive lung diseaseCerebrovascular accidentAccording to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), heart disease is the leading cause of death in the United States among older adults.
Cancer is the second most common condition that can lead to death in older adults. Although the incidence of cancer varies with age, older adults are more likely to develop cancer. In older adults, cancer of the prostate, colon, breast, and lung is more common.
Chronic obstructive lung disease is the third most common condition that can lead to death in older adults. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a lung disease that makes it difficult for individuals to breathe. COPD is mainly caused by smoking.
Cerebrovascular accidents (stroke) are the least common conditions that can lead to death in older adults. Stroke is caused by a disruption in the blood supply to the brain, and it can cause death if it is not treated in time. According to the CDC, stroke is the fifth leading cause of death in the United States, and it is more common in older adults.
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Related Questions
Which of the following is a common risk factor for endothelial injury?
OA. Atrial fibrillation
OB. High levels of high-density lipoproteins
OC. Hypertension
D. Low levels of low-density lipoproteins
Answers
Answer:
OC. Hypertension
Explanation:
isabella is new to working in a doctors office. what should she use for all official correspondence?
A. email
B. registered mail
C. The doctors name and address
D.letterhead
Answers
Isabella must use email for all official correspondence, as shown in option A.
Why should email be used?Because it is a modern and fast way of communication.Because it reduces communication costs.Because it does not present the personal data of the people involved.Email is the best way to establish communication between a company and its employees. This is because it establishes a fast, cheap communication that can be adapted to different people and that does not expose personal information such as addresses.
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An AED does not promptly analyze a rythm. What is your next step?
Answers
The AED does not promptly analyze a rhythm, the next step would be to manually check the pulse and breathing of the person in need of assistance. If there is no pulse or breathing, CPR should be initiated immediately while waiting for emergency medical services to arrive.
The important to always have a backup plan in case of equipment failure or malfunction. If an AED does not promptly analyze a rhythm, your next step should be Ensure that the AED is properly connected to the patient electrode pads placed correctly on the patient's chest. Check for any issues with the AED device itself battery, connection, or display issues. If the issue persists, continue performing CPR chest compressions and rescue breaths according to the recommended guidelines until the AED can successfully analyze the rhythm or medical professionals arrive to take over.
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A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is at risk for thrombus formation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse delegate to an assitive personnel (AP)?
A). Apply thromboembolic stockings?
B). monitor the circulation in all four extremities
C). Record the condition of the clients skin
D). Reinforce teaching about performing range-or-motion exercise
Answers
Answer:
A). Apply thromboembolic stockings
Explanation:
A thrombus formation is one of the dangerous action that happens in the body of an individual. This could led to death if care is not taken. A thrombus is known as a blood clot that happens in the arteries, or vein of a person as a result so many factors with the most significant factor being atrial fibrillation.
In-order to reduce thrombus formation, there are various approach to adopt like raising your legs 6 inches above your heart from time to time, wearing special stockings (called compression stockings) if your doctor prescribes them doing exercises your doctor gives you. as well as changing your position often, especially during a long trip.
Thrombus formation is defined as a dangerous phenomenon that takes place in the body of an individual. The thrombus is a formation of a blood clot that interferes with blood flow and circulation.
The correct option is:
Option A. Apply thromboembolic stockings
A thrombus formation is the clotting of the blood, which under severe circumstances can lead to death.
In order to reduce the formation of thrombus, special stockings or thromboembolic stockings are used. There are several other techniques to reduce the thrombus such as exercising, changing the position ofter especially during a continuous sitting.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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I NEED HELP IM STUCK!!!
Answers
CDC Center for disease control
CLIA ..... I am unsure what this stands for.
Immunity... when you’re body protects you from a infection or disease. Natural immunity is when you get sick and recover. Your body makes T cells so If you are exposed to the infection again the T cell remember and fight the infection. Herd immunity is when most people in the community has had the virus or infection. Keeps the infection from spreading in that area because most people are already immune to it.
Behaviors that promote health and wellness. Eating healthy, not smoking, exercising.
Eating healthy can prevent disease. Not eating processed foods that are high in fat, fried foods lower risk of heart attack, cancer, ect.
Question 2 (5 points)
✓ Saved
In order to maintain national and state certification, pharmacy technicians are
required to take courses.
a) distance learning
b) college level
c) online medical
d) continuing education
Answers
Answer:
d
Explanation:
i took this quiz Have A Good Day
A nurse is working with an oncology patient and is preparing to administer ordered medications.
Which priority calculation should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Answers
Answer:
The nurse should work with the client to individualize the plan of care for managing pain. Donning two pairs of gloves tested against chemotherapy agents during all handling activities.
Wearing a disposable gown made from a low permeable fabric with back closure.
Using eye and face protection when splashing may be a risk. Take measures to prevent medication errors.
Explanation:
Describe evidence-based strategies for managing barriers in your classroom
Answers
Here are some evidence-based strategies that may help manage barriers in the classroom:
Build positive relationships: Research has shown that building positive relationships with students can increase engagement and motivation to learn. Take time to get to know your students and find out what motivates them.
Differentiate instruction: Students have different learning styles, abilities, and backgrounds. Teachers can differentiate instruction by modifying the curriculum, using different teaching strategies, and providing accommodations to meet the diverse needs of students.
Create a safe and supportive learning environment: Teachers can create a classroom culture that is safe, supportive, and inclusive. This can be done by setting clear expectations for behavior, encouraging respectful communication, and promoting a sense of belonging among all students.
Use technology: Technology can be used to support learning and increase student engagement. Teachers can use educational apps, interactive whiteboards, and other online resources to help students learn in new and innovative ways.
Provide regular feedback: Students need regular feedback on their progress to help them understand what they are doing well and where they need to improve. Teachers can provide feedback through grading, rubrics, and verbal feedback during class discussions.
Incorporate active learning strategies: Active learning strategies, such as group work, peer teaching, and problem-based learning, can help students engage with the material and promote deeper understanding.
Support social-emotional learning: Students need social-emotional skills to be successful in school and life. Teachers can support social-emotional learning by teaching skills such as self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and relationship skills.
By implementing these evidence-based strategies, teachers can help manage barriers in the classroom and create a positive learning environment for all students.
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7. Hip dysplasia is an abnormal growth of the bones of the hip joint.
O
True
O
False
Answers
Answer:
brainliest plsssss
Explanation:
Hip dysplasia is an abnormality of the hip joint where the socket portion does not fully cover the ball portion, resulting in an increased risk for joint dislocation. Hip dysplasia may occur at birth or develop in early life. Regardless, it does not typically produce symptoms in babies less than a year old.
Other names: Developmental dysplasia of the ...
Risk factors: Family history, swaddling, breech ...
when can a gag reflex return after ERCP postoperative
Answers
Answer:
Typically, you can go home after the sedation wears off, which takes about an hour or two. Someone else should plan to drive you home. You can drink clear fluids when your gag reflex returns, which can take two to four hours. After that, you may resume your usual diet unless instructed otherwise.
Explanation:
Instrument category cutting and dissecting
Answers
Answer:
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Explanation:kk
brady- (brady/cardia; brady/kinesia) means:
Answers
The term "brady-" in medical terminology refers to a condition or symptom related to a slower than normal rate of something. Depending on the specific context, it can mean different things.
When used in combination with "cardia," as in "brady/cardia," it means a slower than normal heart rate. This can be caused by various factors such as medication, underlying medical conditions, or other factors. Symptoms of bradycardia can include dizziness, fainting, shortness of breath, and fatigue. Treatment for bradycardia may involve medications, pacemakers, or lifestyle changes.
When used in combination with "kinesia," as in "brady/kinesia," it refers to a slowness of movement. This can be a symptom of Parkinson's disease, a degenerative disorder of the nervous system that affects movement. Other symptoms of Parkinson's disease may include tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with balance and coordination. Treatment for Parkinson's disease may involve medications, surgery, or other therapies.
In summary, "brady-" refers to a slower than normal rate of something, and its meaning can vary depending on the context in which it is used.
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A patient is brought to the emergency department of a rural hospital following a high speed motor vehicle collision. When significant abdominal and pelvic injuries are noted in the primary survey, which of the following is the priority intervention?
Answers
The priority intervention in this scenario would be to stabilize the patient's condition and ensure their ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) are maintained.
In the scenario described, when significant abdominal and pelvic injuries are noted in the primary survey of a patient brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention would be to initiate immediate resuscitation and stabilize the patient's condition.
The first and foremost priority is to ensure the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) are maintained. The medical team should assess and secure the patient's airway, provide oxygen if necessary, and ensure adequate ventilation.
Breathing should be assessed, and if needed, interventions like chest tube placement or needle decompression may be performed. Circulation should be addressed by starting intravenous access and administering fluids or blood products as indicated.
Following the ABC assessment and stabilization, the medical team should perform a secondary survey to further evaluate the specific injuries. In the case of significant abdominal and pelvic injuries, additional interventions may be required, such as pelvic stabilization, controlling external bleeding, or arranging for surgical consultation if there is evidence of internal bleeding or organ damage.
However, the initial priority in this scenario is to stabilize the patient's overall condition and address life-threatening injuries through proper resuscitation and management of the ABCs.
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Discuss the Medico-legal case report and custody of the MLC(
Medicolegal) records
Answers
Medico-legal case reports and custody of MLC records are essential for legal and healthcare systems. They provide comprehensive medical information as evidence and require secure storage to ensure integrity and accessibility.
Medico-legal case reports and the custody of Medicolegal (MLC) records are of utmost importance in the legal and healthcare systems. A Medico-legal case report documents the details of a patient's medical condition, treatment provided, and any associated legal issues. These reports serve as crucial evidence in legal proceedings and provide a comprehensive account of the medical aspects of a case.
The custody of MLC records is significant to ensure their integrity, confidentiality, and accessibility. Proper custody involves secure storage, restricted access, and accurate recordkeeping. Maintaining the chain of custody is essential to prevent tampering, loss, or unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information.
Effective management of MLC records promotes transparency, accountability, and fair administration of justice. It facilitates the coordination between healthcare professionals, law enforcement agencies, and legal authorities. Accessible and well-preserved MLC records enable accurate interpretation, evaluation, and presentation of medical evidence in legal proceedings.
Overall, the proper handling and custody of Medico-legal case reports and MLC records are vital to protect the rights of patients, ensure legal compliance, and promote the efficient functioning of the healthcare and legal systems.
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A heath care provider is reviewing the history of a patient who is about to begin furosemide (Lasix) therapy to treat hypertension. Which of the following drugs that the patient takes should alert the health care professional to take further action?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure disorder.
B. Lithium (lithobid) for bipolar disorder
C. Warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent blood clots
D. Erythromycin (erythrocin) for bronchitis
Answers
The drug regarding which patient should alert the health care professional is Lithium (lithobid) for bipolar disorder
The healthcare provider must be aware of any potential interactions between these two drugs if a patient is receiving lithium for bipolar disorder and is about to start furosemide (Lasix) therapy to treat hypertension. The body's electrolyte balance, particularly the quantities of sodium and potassium, can be impacted by both lithium and furosemide.
Because of this, the healthcare practitioner should carefully check the patient's electrolyte levels while they are taking these two drugs together and may need to change the dosage or frequency of one or both prescriptions. The patient should also be told about any dangers and adverse effects of taking these medications together by the healthcare professional.
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6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answers
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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Begin a Pitocin infusion at 5 mu/min via IV pump for labor induction. On hand is Pitocin 40units in 1000ml Lactated Ringers. How many ml/hr will the IV run?
Answers
Answer:
1005ml
Explanation:
because influsion is 5min and 1000ml lactated ringers
CED
As a veterinary scientist, Carlos is researching cases of Lyme disease that have been reported among dogs and humans in the past three years. Carlos sees that the
number of infections is on the rise. Carlos tracks the daily temperatures over the last three years and compares them to those of years past. He finds that the average
temperature is 5 higher. Taking this evidence into account, what conclusion would be MOST reasonable for Carlos to draw?
ОА.
ОВ.
The warming temperatures have allowed Lyme-carrying ticks to flourish.
The warming temperatures have depressed the immune systems of dogs and humans.
The warming temperatures have led to less Lyme-carrying ticks than in the past.
The warming temperatures have not affected Lyme disease in the animal or human population.
ос.
OD
Answers
Answer:
A. The warming temperatures have allowed Lyme-carrying ticks to flourish.
Explanation:
Harvard course on climate change went over ticks and other similar annoyances. Warming temperatures allow them to spread in more places and longer.
Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
Answers
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
As a Medical Technologist, what would like to contribute in medical field.
Answers
Answer:
Hi here goes my answer and I hope this may help you, may you have a successful day. Look down there goes the answer!
Here goes my answer:
The restorative technologist inquiries about and creates modern specialized applications for the healthcare industry, as a rule at a clinic or autonomous restorative research facility. They help restorative experts by analyzing the patient’s natural tests and contribute to the patient’s wellbeing arrange by diagnosing and making a treatment procedure.
Explanation:
Question 1
Which part of the DABDA is where a patient feels the physician made a
mistake with their diagnosis?
O Bargaining
O Anger
O Denial
O Acceptance
Answers
Which of the following is a geologic emergency? A. Tornado B. Earthquake C. Heat wave D. Active Shooter
Answers
Answer:
B. Earthquake
Explanation:
Some other examples of Geological emergencies are volcanic eruptions, natural explosions, avalanches, and landslides.
I hope this helps!! :D
Is a geologic emergency a Earthquake because according to scientists, in the near future, could cause an earthquake.
What is earthquakes?Earthquake is a sudden and sudden movement of land resulting from a fault. Therefore, the rupture of a rock is the mechanism by which the earthquake is produced.
Earthquakes are a geological emergency because it is through geologists that we can try to avoid catastrophes for people.
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what are characteristics of a healthy body weight? multiple select question. absence of medical conditions that suggest a need for weight loss body composition with an acceptable amount of fat muscular system that can lift three times the body's weight fat distribution that is not a risk factor for illness acceptable body mass index
Answers
The characteristics of a healthy body weight Option D. fat distribution that is not a risk factor for illness acceptable body mass index.
BMI is a body weight measurement and is not supposed to diagnose sickness or contamination. For extra data, go to about grownup BMI. keeping a weight inside the healthy BMI range is one way to support overall fitness as you age.
Older adults have a tendency to lose muscle and bone, so greater of their body weight is in all likelihood to come back from fats. more youthful humans and athletes may additionally weigh extra because of strong muscle tissues and denser bones. those realities can skew your BMI wide variety and make it much less correct for predicting genuine body fat degrees.
Muscle mass is greater dense than fat tissue. in order you gain extra muscle and lose fat, you convert your usual frame composition, which can result in better weight, however a smaller figure, and better health.
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TRUE/FALSE.Strength is best developed at an intensity of 60% of 1RM.
Answers
The given statement "Strength is best developed at an intensity of 60% of 1RM." is false because strength is not best developed at an intensity of 60% of 1RM (one-repetition maximum).
Strength development is influenced by various factors, including intensity, volume, and frequency of training. However, the optimal intensity for strength development depends on the specific goals and training phase of an individual.
To maximize strength gains, training typically involves working at higher intensities closer to an individual's maximum capabilities. This is often expressed as a percentage of their 1RM, which is the maximum weight they can lift for one repetition with proper form.
While training at 60% of 1RM can be useful for certain purposes such as muscular endurance or active recovery, it is generally considered too low of an intensity to elicit significant strength gains.
This intensity range is commonly associated with hypertrophy (muscle growth) or muscular endurance training rather than maximal strength development.
For strength gains, it is generally recommended to train at higher intensities, typically in the range of 70-85% of 1RM. This intensity range challenges the muscles and nervous system sufficiently to promote adaptations in neuromuscular coordination and force production, leading to increased strength.
It's important to note that training programs should be individualized, taking into consideration factors such as training experience, exercise selection, and overall training goals.
Consulting with a qualified strength and conditioning professional can help determine the most appropriate intensity range for an individual's specific needs and objectives.
So, the given statement is false.
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a pharmacy technician is compounding an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment. it should be 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine. when the 40g order is complete how much of the solution will be the inactive solvent?
a. 2 g
b. 5 g
c. 38 g
d. 39.2 g
Answers
Answer:
When a pharmacy technician is preparing an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment containing 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, the amount of ointment that corresponds to the inactive solvent is 38 g.
Explanation:
If a pharmaceutical preparation of hydrocortisone ointment contains 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, it will contain only 2 g of these active compounds in 40 g of preparation. This means that the amount of inert or inactive solvent is 38 g.
1. Hydrocortisone 2% + calamine 3% = 5%.
40 g ------------------ 100%
X ------------------ 5%
Active components = (40 X 5) / 100 = 2g
2. Inactive solvent = Total amount - active components
Inactive solvent = 40 g - 2 g = 38 g
2% hydrocortisone ointment composition
Hydrocortisone ........ 0,8 g
Calamine ................. 1,2 g
Inert excipient ..... 38 g
Total ......................... 40 g
An obese diabetic client has bilateral leg aching is to start a cardiac rehabilitation with an exercise program. using which exercise equipment will be most helpful to the client
Answers
Answer:
The stationary bicycle is the most appropriate training modality because it is a non-weight-bearing exercise. The time that the individual exercises on the stationary bicycle is increased with improved functional capacity. The other exercise equipment requires exercising while standing
Explanation:
According to a recent warning from the FDA, grain-free food might be giving dogs a life-threatening heart problem called dilated cardiomyopathy, or DCM. Scientists interested in studying this link were trying to see if there was a difference in the average blood pressure of dogs on grain-free dog food vs the average blood pressure of dogs on food that includes grains. To minimize variation in subjects, scientists measured the initial blood pressure of 30 dogs while each was still on a grain-free diet, and then took a second measurement 8 weeks after each dog was switched to a diet that included grains. What hypothesis test would be appropriate for analyzing the above scenario
Answers
Answer:
paired t-test
Explanation:
The paired t-test is used for samples or variables that belong to the same individual or entity under study. Recall that; if the experiment is to be carried out with each experiment unit being measured twice, then giving an outcome of pairs of observations; Hence, we apply the paired t-test.
74. Which of the following statements about child abuse is correct ?
A. Child abusers are most often unrelated to the child.
(B) Most child abusers have psychotic or antisocial personalities.
C. More than 95% of all serious head injuries of children under the
age of one are due to physical abuse.
D. Child abuse is rare in most Arab countries and should therefore
not be reported to relevant authorities.
E. Abuse with no physical harm has less long-term mental effects
than abuse with harm
Answers
Answer:
most child abusers have phsycotic or antisocial personalities
Explanation:
my opinion
the nurse is facilitating a class for a group of student nurses regarding malnutrition among patients with heart failure. which diet plan should the nurse recommend for these patients? select all that apply.
Answers
For patients with heart failure, the nurse should recommend a low-sodium diet to manage fluid retention and symptoms, along with a high-calorie diet to prevent malnutrition and provide sufficient energy. The correct answer is option B.
When recommending a diet plan for patients with heart failure who are at risk for malnutrition, the nurse should consider several factors to promote optimal health and manage symptoms.
Two key diet plans that the nurse should recommend are a low-sodium diet and a high-calorie diet.
A low-sodium diet is crucial for patients with heart failure as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and worsen symptoms. The nurse should advise the students to educate patients about reducing their sodium intake by avoiding processed and packaged foods, using herbs and spices instead of salt for seasoning, and reading food labels to identify hidden sources of sodium.
On the other hand, heart failure patients often experience increased energy needs due to the inefficiency of their heart's pumping function. Therefore, a high-calorie diet is recommended to prevent malnutrition and provide adequate energy for daily activities.
The nurse should emphasize the importance of consuming nutrient-dense foods such as lean proteins, whole grains, fruits, and vegetables to meet the increased calorie requirements without compromising overall nutritional balance.
These dietary interventions, when implemented correctly, can significantly improve the well-being and quality of life for patients with heart failure.
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The probable question may be:
The nurse is facilitating a class for a group of student nurses regarding malnutrition among patients with heart failure. Which diet plan should the nurse recommend for these patients? Select all that apply.
A. a high-calorie diet
B. a low-sodium diet
metered-dose inhalers (mdis) deliver a specific amount of medication. group of answer choices true false
Answers
True. Metered-dose inhalers (MDIS) deliver a specific amount of medication.
Metered-dose inhalers (MDIs) are a type of inhaler that delivers a specific amount of medication to the lungs. MDIs are commonly used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions. MDIs work by releasing a measured amount of medication into the air, which is then inhaled by the patient. The medication is delivered directly to the lungs, where it can quickly begin to work.
MDIs are a very effective way to deliver medication to the lungs, and are often the preferred method for treating asthma. They are also relatively easy to use, which makes them a good choice for many patients.There are a few things to keep in mind when using an MDI, however. It is important to shake the inhaler before each use, and to follow the instructions on the label carefully.
The most common side effects of inhalation aerosols: pain in the throat, cough, headache. The best way to use an inhaler or other device is to follow the directions that come with the product. Common side effects with symbicort include upper respiratory tract infections, bronchitis, sinus infections, sore throat, and headache. Inhaler devices are classified as either pressurized metered dose inhalers (MDI) or dry powder inhalers (dpi). An inhaler is a small handheld device that is used to deliver medication directly to the lungs.MDIs are a safe and effective way to deliver medication to the lungs. They are easy to use and can be a good choice for many patients.
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