Explain this statement:the vwx company collects an honored note with a maturity date of 36 months fromestablishment, a 8% interest rate, and an initial loan amount of $40,000. whichaccounts are used to record collection of the honored note at maturity date?

A=68,B=44

the interior angle of triangle is 180

A+B+C=180

x+x-24+68=180

2x+44=180

2x=180-44

2x=136

x=68

A=x=68

B=68-24=44

Answer:

-5 < x < 10

Step-by-step explanation:

−6 < x − 1 < 9

Add 1 to all sides

−6+1 < x − 1+1 < 9+1

-5 < x < 10

Answer:

3/2x - 50 = 7

3/2x = 57

x = 38

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if its wrong

The outcome Asher needs to win the game are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10.

We get the above answer following the given method.

We have been given the information that there are 2 six-sided number cubes and Eitan needs to roll a sum of 11 or more.

The possible outcomes for rolling two six-sided number cubes are the integers from 2 to 12. In order for Asher to have a better probability of winning than Eitan, Asher's winning outcome must be a lower number than Eitan's winning outcome of 11. The possible winning outcomes for Asher are therefore 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10. So the possible outcomes that Asher needs to win the game are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10.

Read more about Probability from:

https://brainly.com/question/11034287

#SPJ4

The questions for grade 7 math worksheets are typically prepared by math teachers, curriculum specialists, and educational publishers.

These professionals use their knowledge of math concepts and pedagogy to create questions that are appropriate for the grade level and aligned with educational standards.

Additionally, they may use feedback from students and other teachers to refine the questions and ensure they are effective for teaching and learning. It is important for the questions to be clear, accurate, and challenging in order to help students develop their math skills and prepare for more advanced concepts.

To know more about pedagogy click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/30400049#

#SPJ11

The activation energy of the reaction is approximately 126.8 kJ/mol. The calculation was done using the Arrhenius equation and the natural logarithm of the rate constants at the two temperatures.

To calculate the activation energy of a reaction, we can use the Arrhenius equation:

k = A * e⁽⁻ᴱᵃ/ᴿᵀ⁾

where k is the rate constant, A is the pre-exponential factor, Ea is the activation energy, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature in Kelvin.

We have two rate constants at different temperatures, so we can set up two equations:

k₁ = A * e⁽⁻ᴱᵃ/ᴿᵀ₁⁾

k₂ = A * e⁽⁻ᴱᵃ/ᴿᵀ₂⁾

We want to solve for Ea, so we can take the natural logarithm of both sides of each equation:

ln(k₁) = ln(A) - Ea/RT₁

ln(k₂) = ln(A) - Ea/RT₂

We can subtract the second equation from the first to eliminate ln(A):

ln(k₁) - ln(k₂) = Ea/R * (1/T₂ - 1/T₁)

Now we can solve for Ea:

Ea = -R * (ln(k₁) - ln(k₂)) / (1/T₂ - 1/T₁)

Plugging in the given values, we get:

Ea = -8.314 J/mol/K * (ln(6.20 x 10⁻⁴) - ln(2.39 x 10⁻²)) / (1/760 K - 1/700 K)

Ea ≈ 126.8 kJ/mol

Therefore, the activation energy of the reaction is approximately 126.8 kJ/mol.

Learn more about logarithms here: brainly.com/question/30085872

#SPJ4

Answer:

29

Step-by-step explanation:

Well "value" of 3x^2 - 7x + 9 when x = 4 is just x plugged into the expression

3 * 4^2 - 7 * 4 + 9

3 * 16 - 28 + 9

= 29

Answer:

x = 135°

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles on a straight line add up to 180

180 - 45 = 135

Answer:

the exterior angle is 70 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

A straight line is 180 degrees. 180-65-45=70.

Answer: 197/43-4=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

AB = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

AB = EB x 2 = 24

Answer:

AB equals 24.

Step-by-step explanation:

Fill in the blank would be 24

{{{ THE BOLDED CHARACTERS SHOULD BE SMALL. }}}

SEQUENCE: 6, 18, 54, 162

18/6 = 3

54/18 = 3

162/54 = 3

then, r (common ratio) = 3

_________________________________________

RECURSIVE RULE: r = 3

an = a(n - 1) × r       [formula]

ANSWER: an = a(n - 1) × 3

_________________________________________

ITERIATIVE RULE: r = 3, a1 = 6

an = a1 × r^(n - 1)       [formula] [ ^(n-1) is an exponent]

ANSWER: an = 6 × 3^(n - 1)

Suppose that your goal is to build a credit history by establishing a FICO score. you should approach payments on a long-term loan, such as an auto loan by: A. pay the minimum amount required each bill.

Credit history can be defined as the record that help to show a creditworthiness of a person which is the ability to pay back a loan.

FICO score on the other hand is as well used to determine the creditworthiness of a borrower based on the fact that this score help to show  whether a borrower used to pay the amount loan to him/her on time or delay it.

Therefore the correct option is A.

Learn more about credit history here:https://brainly.com/question/30191672

#SPJ1

The total surface area of the pyramid is 115 cm².

To find the area of a triangle, we use the formula:

Area = 1/2 * base * height

In this case, the height is given as 9 cm and the base is given as 5 cm.

So,

Area = 1/2 * 5 cm * 9 cm

Area = 22.5 cm²

Therefore, the area of the four triangles = 4 * 22.5 square centimeters.

area of the four triangles = 90 cm²

The area of the square = 5 cm * 5cm

The area of the square = 25 cm²

The total surface area of the pyramid = area of square + area of four triangles

The total surface area of the pyramid = 25 cm² + 90 cm²

The total surface area of the pyramid = 115 cm²

Learn more about total surface area at: https://brainly.com/question/28178861

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The 90% confidence interval for the proportion of pain reduction for the Placebo group is (0.836, 1.164).

what is confidence interval?

A confidence interval is a range of values calculated from a statistical analysis that is used to estimate the true value of a population parameter (such as the mean or proportion) with a certain level of confidence.

what is proportion?

In statistics, a proportion is a type of ratio that represents the fraction of a population that possesses a certain characteristic of interest. It is usually expressed as a percentage or a decimal between 0 and 1.

In the given question,

To construct the 90% confidence intervals for the proportion of pain reduction for each treatment group, we will use the following formula:

CI = p ± zsqrt((p(1-p))/n)

For the Vitamin C Oil group:

Sample proportion (p) = 65/47 = 1.383

Sample size (n) = 47

Critical value (z) for a 90% confidence level = 1.645 (from a standard normal distribution table)

CI = 1.383 ± 1.645sqrt((1.383(1-1.383))/47)

CI = 1.383 ± 0.292

CI = (1.091, 1.675)

Therefore, the 90% confidence interval for the proportion of pain reduction for the Vitamin C Oil group is (1.091, 1.675).

For the Placebo group:

Sample proportion (p) = 100/100 = 1.000  ,Sample size (n) = 100

Critical value (z) for a 90% confidence level = 1.645 (from a standard normal distribution table)

Substituting the values in the formula, we get:

CI = 1.000 ± 1.645sqrt((1.000(1-1.000))/100)

CI = 1.000 ± 0.164

CI = (0.836, 1.164)

Therefore, the 90% confidence interval for the proportion of pain reduction for the Placebo group is (0.836, 1.164).

To know more about confidence interval, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/24131141

#SPJ1

The required experimental probability that the next batter will get a hit is 2/11.

A number that indicates how likely an event is to occur is called its probability. It is communicated as a number in the reach from 0 and 1, or, utilizing rate documentation, in the reach from 0% to 100 percent. The higher the probability, the more likely the event is to occur.

The experimental probability of an event happening is defined as the number of times the event occurs divided by the total number of trials or events.

In this case, we are given that 4 out of 22 batters have gotten a hit so far. Therefore, the experimental probability that the next batter will get a hit is:

P(hit) = Number of hits / Total number of batters

P(hit) = 4/22

Simplifying:

P(hit) = 2/11

Therefore, the experimental probability that the next batter will get a hit is 2/11.

To know more about Probability visit:

brainly.com/question/15124899

#SPJ1

If you believe that bit plane slicing is lossy, then 1st-order extrapolation or 2D bilinear interpolation cannot fully recover the original image.

What is extrapolation and interpolation?

Extrapolation is an estimation based on extending a known sequence of data beyond what is absolutely known.

Interpolation is the estimation of a value in a sequence of values between two known values.

Bit plane slicing is a lossy compression technique, which means that some information from the original image is lost during the compression process. The purpose of bit plane slicing is to reduce the size of an image by removing less significant bits from each pixel. As a result, the quality of the image is reduced.

1st-order extrapolation and 2D bilinear interpolation are techniques used to estimate or predict missing or unknown values from a given set of data. These techniques can be used to enhance the quality of an image, but they cannot recover the original image in cases where information has been lost through compression or degradation. In other words, they can only improve the quality of the image to a certain extent, but they cannot restore it to its original state.

So, if you believe that bit plane slicing is lossy, then 1st-order extrapolation or 2D bilinear interpolation cannot fully recover the original image, although they may help to improve its quality to some extent.

To know more about extrapolation and interpolation visit,

https://brainly.com/question/18768845

#SPJ4

Answer:

Exact fraction: 6/5

Exact Decimal: 1.2

Answer:

  12/5 = 2.4

Step-by-step explanation:

The fraction 6/10 can be reduced to simplify the addition.

  9/5 -(-6/10) = 9/5 +6/10 = 9/5 +3/5

  = 12/5 = 2.4

__

The two minus signs "cancel." The product of any set of numbers with an even number of minus signs will be positive.

In a binomial distribution, the number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures is 1. This means that there is only one way to have all trials result in failures, as each trial can only have one possible outcome - a failure.

1. In a binomial distribution, each trial can result in either a success or a failure. Let's assume that there are n trials in total.

2. To arrange all trials to be failures, we need to ensure that no trial results in a success. Therefore, for each trial, there is only one possible outcome - a failure.

3. The number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures can be calculated using combinations. In this case, we need to select 0 successes from n trials. The number of ways to do this is given by the combination formula: C(n, 0) = 1, where C represents the combination.

Therefore, the number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures in a binomial distribution is given by the combination formula, C(n, k) = n! / (k! * (n-k)!).

To know more about binomial distribution visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29137961

#SPJ11

The number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures in a binomial distribution is always 1. This is because there is only one way to have no successes in a set of trials.

Regardless of the number of trials or the probability of success, the number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures in a binomial distribution is always 1.

The number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures in a binomial distribution can be determined using the formula for the binomial coefficient.
The binomial coefficient, often denoted as nCk or n choose k, represents the number of ways to choose k items from a set of n items, without considering their order. In the context of a binomial distribution, n represents the total number of trials and k represents the number of successes (in this case, 0).
To find the number of ways of arranging all trials to be failures, we can use the binomial coefficient formula:
nCk = n! / (k!(n-k)!)
In this case, since we want all trials to be failures, k is equal to 0. Thus, the formula simplifies to:
nC0 = n! / (0!(n-0)!) = n! / (0! * n!) = 1

For example, if we have 5 trials and we want all of them to be failures, there is only one possible arrangement: FFFFF, where F represents a failure.

Learn more about probability from the given link:

https://brainly.com/question/13604758

#SPJ11

Step-by-step explanation:

v = u + at

u+at=v

at = v-u

a = v-u

t

Hope this helps you :)

There are 20! rational numbers between 0 and 1 for which the product of the resulting numerator and denominator is 20!.

To write a rational number as a fraction in lowest terms, we need to simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor (GCD).

Let's calculate the product of the resulting numerator and denominator for 20! and determine how many rational numbers between 0 and 1 will have this product.

First, let's calculate 20! (the factorial of 20):

\($20! = 20 \times 19 \times 18 \times \ldots \times 2 \times 1$\)

Next, we'll express 20! as a fraction in lowest terms. Since 20! is an integer, we can write it as a fraction over 1:

\($\frac{20!}{1}$\)

To find the product of the resulting numerator and denominator, we'll simplify the fraction:

\($\frac{20!}{1} = \frac{20 \times 19 \times 18 \times \ldots \times 2 \times 1}{1} = 20 \times 19 \times 18 \times \ldots \times 2 \times 1$\)

Now, to determine how many rational numbers between 0 and 1 will have the product 20!, we need to consider the number of unique fractions that can be formed with 20! as the numerator.

Since the denominator can be any positive integer less than or equal to 20!, the number of rational numbers will be equal to 20!.

Therefore, there are 20! rational numbers between 0 and 1 for which the product of the resulting numerator and denominator is 20!.

Learn more about rational numbers here:

https://brainly.com/question/24398433

#SPJ11

Answer:

15.8 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

This table could represent the prices of a certain item in a store.

To  learn more about the prices of a certain item in a store refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/15156915

#SPJ1

Answer:

I can tell you the steps to find the answer.

step.1 calculate total number of squares in the given figure.

step.2 calculate total number of shaded squares.

step.3 to calculate the probability of the given event we will use P(E) = favorable outcomes / total outcomes.

They are 2 pounds of clay in the Art Supply Closet if Miss Secore divides the clay evenly into bags and places ⅙ pound into each bag, how many bags will she use?

we have that

total pounds=2

Divide the total pounds by 1/6

Divide 2 by 1/6 is the same that multiplying 2 by the reciprocal of 1/6

the reciprocal of 1/6 is 6/1

so

2/(1/6)=2*(6/1)=12

Answer:

0.841 (equivalent to 84.1%

Step-by-step explanation:

Chances are that your calculator has several different probability distribution functions built in.  Here we need the function    normal(

Typing that into a calculator, as follows, returns a decimal fraction which also represents the percentage of the time that a randomly selected class member scored above 79:

normalcdf(79, 1000, 84, 5) = 0.841 (equivalent to 84.1%)

Answer:

its should be b

Step-by-step explanation

mark brainlist

Answer:

end -8 and move -3 . start at -8 and move -3