FILL IN THE BLANK. recognition for a job well done, as discussed in the video, is a___, whereas removing the penalty of docked pay is a___.

Answers

Answer 1

Employee recognition is the acknowledgment of a company's staff for exemplary performance.

When your employer takes money out of your pay,

What is formal recognition?

Formal recognition is an organized program with established procedures and standards connected to the objectives and values of your organization. There is a nomination and selection process for formal recognition. After that, employees receive public acclaim during an awards ceremony.

According to California law, an employer may legitimately withhold the following amounts from an employee's pay: deductions mandated by federal or state legislation, such as income taxes or garnishments, on the part of the employer.

The dock is a section of the criminal courtroom designated for defendants, separating them from other trial participants. The security guards who watch over the defendants as well as any intermediaries or interpreters assigned to help them are also present.

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Related Questions

What is the conflict perspective when it comes to income inequality?

Answers

Answer:

conflict theory: A social science perspective that holds that stratification is dysfunctional and harmful in society, with inequality perpetuated because it benefits the rich and powerful at the expense of the poor.

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which of the following was the closest european forerunner of the modern u.s. prison?

Answers

The penitentiary concept created in the late 18th century was the closest European precursor of the contemporary U.S. jail system. The Philadelphia Walnut Street Jail, which first operated in 1790, is one famous instance.

It used the idea of solitary confinement as a way to reform criminals via introspection and penitence, hence the name "penitentiary." The goals of this approach were to isolate inmates from society, provide them time for introspection and religious teaching, and impose harsh rules.The concept of solitary confinement was utilized as a means to reform criminals through introspection and penitence, which is why the term "penitentiary" was coined. The objectives of this approach included isolating inmates from society, allowing them ample time for self-reflection and religious instruction, and enforcing strict regulations and discipline.

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Cloture | Definition, Example, & Facts?

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Cloture is a parliamentary procedure used in legislative bodies to end a debate and bring a decision to a vote. The purpose of cloture is to limit the amount of time a debate can go on, in order to make decisions more efficiently.

Example: In the United States Senate, a cloture vote requires the support of three-fifths of the senators present and voting. If the vote is successful, debate on the legislation is limited to 30 additional hours.

Facts:

Cloture was first used in the French National Assembly in the late 1800s, and has since been adopted by many other legislative bodies around the world.Cloture rules vary between countries and legislative bodies, but they generally involve a vote to limit the amount of time that debate can continue.Cloture is often used to end a filibuster, which is a tactic used by minority senators to block legislation by talking for an extended period of time.

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The Fourteenth Amendment provides that no person shall be deprived "of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law." The due process clause has multiple aspects. What are the aspects of due process? Choose two answers.
Equal protection due process—People must be treated the same.
Procedural due process—Any government decision to take life, liberty, or property must be made equitably.
Federal due process—The national government must treat everyone fairly.
Substantive due process—Limits what the government may do in its legislative and executive capacities.

Answers

The Fourteenth Amendment states that no one shall be deprived of "life, liberty, or property, without due process of law." The Due process clause consists of various aspects, two of which are:Substantive due process- This principle limits what the government can do in its legislative and executive roles.

This aspect restricts the government's power to enact legislation that impinges on a citizen's life, liberty, or property without reasonable justification. Procedural due process- This principle guarantees procedural protections before the government deprives any person of life, liberty, or property.

In this aspect, the government must adhere to a fair procedure to avoid depriving individuals of their rights. For instance, a person is accused of a crime; he or she has the right to an attorney, a fair trial, and an unbiased jury.

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3.4 What is the rule of law'?​

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The term “Rule of Law” is derived from the French phrase 'La Principe de Legality' (the principle of legality) which refers to a government based on principles of law and not of men. [1] In a broader sense Rule of Law means that Law is supreme and is above every individual.

Answer:

I don't know if I can help in any way I can get a ride to the train station and sweet dreams my love I love you too baby girl and I will be there at the same time I don't have a great day and sweet dreams my love I love you too baby girl and I will be there at the same time

Is the United States an Empire?
Do you think it is correct to describe the United States as an empire? Discuss with reference to
historical events and examples. Should the U.S. play a less aggressive role in the world, more
aggressive, or have we got it about right? Discuss and explain your thoughts.

Answers

An empire could be a sovereign state consisting of many territories and peoples subject to one ruling authority, typically an emperor. The federal of the US has never stated its territories as an empire, however some commentators said it was.

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When acceleration is positive does that mean it is always increasing in speed?

Answers

Answer:

No

Explanation:

it's more complicated than that.

acceleration can be positive but be slowing down in speed at the same time.

The person who will receive Duane's benefits in the case of his death is known as her _.
A) power of attorney
B) Beneficiary
C) executor
D) conservator

Answers

Answer:B Beneficary

Explanation:

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The person who will receive Duane's benefits in the case of his death is known as her _.A) power of attorneyB)

A convenience store clerk was complaining about his financial troubles to his best friend. The friend said that the clerk's employer had been cheating him out of a decent salary for too many years, and that the employer owed the clerk. The friend suggested that if the clerk robbed the store during another clerk's shift, he would never get caught. The friend offered to loan the clerk his gun to use to scare the clerk on duty. Both men agreed that no one would get hurt in the process. The next day, the clerk carried out the plan to rob the store while the friend waited outside in the car. During the robbery, the clerk accidentally discharged the gun, and a customer was shot and died instantly. The clerk panicked and left the store empty handed. The friend drove the clerk back to his mother's house, told him to lay low, and then drove home. The clerk later decided that he needed to get out of town quickly. He stole his mother's car, which was more reliable than his own, to drive to a nearby state.
In a case against the friend, which of the following charges would most likely be successfully prosecuted?
A) Attempted robbery, murder, and larceny.
B)Felony murder.
C)Attempted robbery only.
D)Attempted robbery and murder only.

Answers

Felony murder charges would most likely be successfully prosecuted. The correct option is B.

The most likely charge to be successfully prosecuted in this case would be felony murder. This is because the friend directly aided in the commission of the crime, and his assistance was what ultimately led to the death of the customer.

The charge of felony murder states that any death that occurs during the commission of a felony crime is considered murder, even if it was accidental. Therefore, the friend would be charged with felony murder in this case.

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Which is the most accurate statement concerning the relationship between state and federal regulations

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Answer:

The relationship between state and federal regulations in the United States is one of delegation and complement: in principle, the states are the holders of sovereignty and, therefore, possess all the rights and powers that they have not expressly delegated to the Federal Government to through the Constitution. In turn, in the event that the states have delegated prerogatives to the federal government, these may only be exercised by the federal government, and subsidiarily (and always in a complementary manner and respecting federal guidelines) by the states.

Explain the elements of an offer

Answers

Explain the elements of an offer

Elements of an offer include the offer and acceptance. All parties must be competent when it comes to giving and accepting the offer. The information discussed must be lawful and be rooted in mutuality of agreement and obligation. An offer entails a promise that's conditional upon certain conditions.

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Based on the Reality TV Controversies Case, discuss the power of reality television content. a) Why does it upset potential viewers? b) What new law would you propose to address the controversy? Be as specific as possible.

Answers

The power of reality television content lies in its ability to captivate audiences and generate strong emotional reactions.

However, it can also upset potential viewers for several reasons.
a) Reality TV can upset potential viewers due to its sensationalism, manipulation of participants, and the blurring of ethical boundaries. The focus on conflict, drama, and personal struggles often leads to the exploitation and humiliation of individuals for the sake of entertainment. This can be emotionally distressing and raise concerns about the impact on the mental health and well-being of the participants.
b) To address the controversies surrounding reality television, a new law could be proposed that establishes stricter regulations and safeguards to protect the rights and well-being of participants.
This law could include specific provisions such as:
Mandatory psychological assessments: All participants must undergo thorough psychological evaluations before and during their involvement in reality TV shows. This would ensure that individuals with pre-existing vulnerabilities or mental health issues are not exploited or put in potentially harmful situations.
Clear consent and disclosure requirements: Production companies must obtain informed and explicit consent from participants, clearly explaining the potential risks and consequences of their involvement. Participants should be fully aware of how their personal information and actions may be portrayed or manipulated for the purposes of the show.
Independent monitoring and support: An independent body or ombudsman should be established to monitor reality TV shows, ensuring compliance with ethical guidelines and providing support to participants during and after filming. This would help address concerns about manipulation, bullying, and exploitation.
Transparency in editing and portrayal: Production companies should be required to disclose any significant editing or manipulation of content that could misrepresent participants or create false narratives. This would promote transparency and authenticity in the portrayal of individuals on reality TV.
Penalties for violations: The law should establish clear penalties for production companies that violate the regulations, including fines, license suspensions, or legal consequences, to serve as deterrents and ensure compliance.
By implementing such a law, it would provide a framework for responsible and ethical production practices in the reality television industry, protecting the rights and well-being of participants while addressing the concerns and controversies associated with the genre.

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the process of ensuring a care provider has the proper qualifications to practice medicine before granting him privileges, contracting with him as part of a managed care plan, or hiring him in a medical practice is group of answer choices licensing. accrediting. credentialing. checking references.

Answers

The process of ensuring a care provider has the proper qualifications to practice medicine before granting him privileges, contracting with him as part of a managed care plan, or hiring him in a medical practice is called credentialing.

Credentialing is the process of determining a qualified medical professional's qualifications and evaluating their history and reliability.

Credentialing is the process of determining a person's knowledge, ability, or performance level in order to issue a designation, such as a certificate or license. Credentialing is a formal process used in the healthcare business that follows a set of rules to guarantee that patients receive the finest care from healthcare professionals who have undergone the most rigorous examination on their eligibility to practice medicine.

Many healthcare organizations and provider networks handle their own credentialing, usually through an electronic service or a credentialing specialist, with approval from a credentialing committee. Allied health staff membership and the granting and reviewing of particular clinical privileges may fall under this category.

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For a person's negligent conduct to be legally linked to its consequences, the chain of events connecting the two must be:a. unbrokenb. foreseeable c. explainable d. undisputablee. none of the other choices

Answers

For a person's negligent conduct to be legally linked to its consequences, the chain of events connecting the two must be foreseeable. In order to establish negligence, the following elements must be proven: duty of care, breach of that duty, causation, and damages.

Causation is a key element and can be divided into two components: actual causation and proximate causation. Actual causation is the "cause in fact" or "but for" test, which establishes whether the defendant's actions were the factual cause of the plaintiff's injuries.

Proximate causation, on the other hand, addresses the scope of liability by determining whether the defendant's conduct was sufficiently related to the plaintiff's injuries. Foreseeability is an essential aspect of proximate causation. It means that the defendant should have reasonably anticipated that their actions could cause harm to the plaintiff.

The chain of events must be unbroken and directly linked to the consequences. If an unforeseeable intervening cause occurs, breaking the chain of events, the defendant may not be held liable for the plaintiff's injuries.

In summary, to legally link a person's negligent conduct to its consequences, the chain of events connecting the two must be foreseeable, which helps establish proximate causation.

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there are how many classes of hazardous material(s)

Answers

Answer: 9 classes

Explanation: 1. Explosives 2. Gases 3. Flammable Liquids and Combustible Liquids 4. Flammable Solids and Spontaneously Combustible Materials 5. Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides 6. Toxic Materials and Infectious Substances 7. Radioactive Materials 8. Corrosive Materials 9. Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods

David's neighbors trusted him and gave him the key to their shed so that he
could store the wood they get delivered to their doorstep while they are away.
During this time, some burglars break into the locked shed and steal all of the
wood. When the neighbors return, David explains to them that it isn't his fault.
Which of the following best explains why he is correct?
A. He did not lock the shed because he thought it would be OK
B. He is not responsible for damages because reasonable care was
given
C. He can't afford to pay for the damages although it was his fault
D. He benefits from the shed as well, so he should not be liable

Answers

Answer:

B. He is not responsible for damages because reasonable care was given.

Explanation:

As shown in the details, he was specifically given a key to unlock and lock the shed for the delivery of wood. The details also state that the burglars broke into a locked shed. This means that he locked the shed behind him, and therefore is not at fault.

Further proof is that the burglars also caused damage when breaking in, which meant they did not have access to the key in order to open it. This also demonstrates that David was responsible in the care with the key.

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Which of the following are types of public buildings used for polling places? Select all that apply.
fire stations
prisons
libraries
schools
court houses

Answers

Libraries and court houses
Labraries and court houses

new york state police define an as one who operates a motor vehicle in a selfish, bold or pushy manner. aggressive driver average driver safe driver all of the above

Answers

The New York State Police define an aggressive driver as one who operates a motor vehicle in a selfish, bold, or pushy manner. The correct option is a) aggressive driver

This type of driver is the opposite of a safe driver or an average driver. Safe drivers prioritize following traffic rules and maintaining a courteous attitude towards other road users, while average drivers may occasionally exhibit mildly aggressive behaviors but do not consistently engage in reckless actions.

Aggressive driving can include behaviors such as speeding, tailgating, weaving in and out of traffic, running red lights or stop signs, and cutting off other drivers. These actions not only endanger the aggressive driver but also put other road users, including pedestrians, at risk. Law enforcement agencies, like the New York State Police, often focus on identifying and deterring aggressive drivers to maintain road safety and reduce accidents.

In contrast, safe drivers exhibit patience, courtesy, and attentiveness. They adhere to speed limits, maintain a safe following distance, signal their intentions, and respect the rights of other drivers and pedestrians. Safe drivers understand that they share the road with others and prioritize everyone's well-being.

Average drivers fall somewhere between safe and aggressive drivers. They might occasionally speed or perform other unsafe actions, but these behaviors are not consistent or as extreme as those exhibited by aggressive drivers. Still, it is essential for average drivers to recognize and correct any unsafe habits to reduce the risk of accidents and contribute to safer roadways.

In conclusion, New York State Police define an aggressive driver as one who operates a motor vehicle in a selfish, bold, or pushy manner, which distinguishes them from safe and average drivers. It is crucial for all drivers to prioritize safety and courtesy on the road to minimize accidents and ensure the well-being of all road users. The correct option is a) aggressive driver

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Complete Question

new york state police define an as one who operates a motor vehicle in a selfish, bold or pushy manner.

a) aggressive driver b) average driver c) safe driver d) all of the above Explain in 200 words.

Part I: Write “TRUE” if the statement is correct and “FALSE” if it is incorrect
1. Ethical questions are concerned with what one should do in particular situations.
2. A man should obey for the values of a particular society if he/she wants to live with others peacefully.
3. If the action with good intention brings bad consequence, then the act is immoral in light of categorical imperatives.
4. According to Immanuel Kant our will determine the morality of an act-not the outcome.
5. Ethical egoism says that one ought always to do what is most pleasurable/ enjoyable.
6. Categorical Imperative is recommended for use because it is flexible.​

Answers

Writing “TRUE” if the statement is correct and “FALSE” if it is incorrect:

TRUETRUEFALSETRUETRUEFALSE

Writing “TRUE” if the statement is correct and “FALSE” if it is incorrect?TRUE: Ethical questions deal with how people should act in particular situations, based on moral principles or values.

TRUE: Society often has values and norms that individuals are expected to follow in order to live in harmony with others.

FALSE: According to the principle of categorical imperative, an act is moral or immoral based on its intention or motive, regardless of the outcome or consequences that may result.

TRUE: Immanuel Kant believed that the moral worth of an action is based on the intention behind it, not on its consequences.

TRUE: Ethical egoism is a moral theory that states individuals should always act in their own self-interest, even if it conflicts with the interests of others.

FALSE: Categorical imperative is a moral principle developed by Immanuel Kant that emphasizes universal ethical principles that apply to all situations, regardless of individual preferences or circumstances. It is not considered flexible, but rather a universal and unconditional moral duty.

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THE EVALUATION/CRITICS/COMMENT ON THE REVIEW

Review on the highland tower of the incident to the citizens

Answers

Answer:

Although the criticism of every art will be based in the particularities that arise from its specific media, I am interested here in highlighting aspects of criticism applicable across the arts (and which are therefore relevant to film criticism). Equally, although the characteristics of evaluative criticism have developed through and in relation to written criticism, most of the aspects listed below would be germane to work currently taking place within audio-visual formats. I offer this interdisciplinary résumé because my experience is that many students of film studies ‘in the 21st Century’ are currently lacking an awareness of the practice of evaluative criticism.

Explanation:

Some might consider the phrase “evaluative criticism” tautological because the etymology of the word “criticism” implies evaluation. It is derived from the Greek word kritikos, which means to judge, and the kritikoi were the judges or jurymen who gave verdicts (often in competitions).

The benefits of an integrated system lie in its ability to facilitate decision making at three levels: client (services), management (efficiency), and ___________________.

Answers

The benefits of an integrated system lie in its ability to facilitate decision making at three levels: client (services), management (efficiency), and ___________________. Time

The benefits of an integrated system lie in its ability to facilitate decision making at three levels: client (services), management (efficiency), and Time

What is decision making?

Decision making is the process of making choices by identifying a decision, gathering information, and assessing alternative resolutions.

Using a step-by-step decision-making process can help you make more deliberate, thoughtful decisions by organizing relevant information and defining alternatives.

This approach increases the chances that you will choose the most satisfying alternative possible.

The process of decision making are

Identify the decision, Gather relevant information, Identify the alternatives,  Weigh the evidence, Choose among alternatives, Take action, Review your decision & its consequences.

Effective Decision-Making:

Decisions need to be capable of being implemented, whether on a personal or organizational level. You do, therefore, need to be committed to the decision personally, and be able to persuade others of its merits.

What is management?

Management is the process of planning and organising the resources and activities of a business to achieve specific goals in the most effective and efficient manner possible.

Efficiency in management refers to the completion of tasks correctly and at minimal costs. Effectiveness in management relates to the completion of tasks within specific timelines to yield tangible results.

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Sorry but I am unable to answer this question due to the honor code and must report you to the admins

Answers

Answer:

what ????????????????????

Why does california also mandate such classes as public relations, report writing, and communication skills in addition to those that focus on
keeping people safe? check all that apply.
o a wide variety of skill sets prepares the security for any type of situation.
every security location requires good communication among its workers.
california trainers state that these classes are relevant to particular offices.
california also requires many hours training in wmd.

Answers

The reason why the state of California focuses on these additional skills to keep people safe are:

California trainers state that these classes are relevant to particular offices.A wide variety of skill sets prepares the security for any type of situation.Every security location requires good communication among its workers.

What are the skills required in security?

These are the required skills that are required by security personnel in order to carry out their jobs effectively.

These skills are:

Communication skillsAttention to detailsProblem-solving skillsTeamworkTech skills

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Why is DNA profiling not more commonly used in criminal investigations?

Answers

Answer:

DNA can be used to identify criminals with incredible accuracy when biological evidence exists. ... In cases where a suspect is identified, a sample of that person's DNA can be compared to evidence from the crime scene. The results of this comparison may help establish whether the suspect committed the crime.

Explanation:

policy claims advocate changing or strengthening fundamental religious or philosophical beliefs.
group of answer choices
A.true
B.false

Answers

The given statement "policy claims advocate changing or strengthening fundamental religious " is true Policy because claims do not advocate changing or strengthening fundamental religious or philosophical beliefs.

A policy claims advocate is a professional who assists claimants in navigating the process of filing and resolving insurance claims. They are experts in handling complex insurance policies and can help claimants understand their rights and options under their insurance policy.

An advocate will review the claim, assess coverage and advise on the best course of action when dealing with insurers. They can review settlement offers to ensure they are fair and negotiate with insurers to get a better outcome for the claimant.

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2.1 What does “law of general application” mean?
 

Answers

Answer:

Law of General Application means that the law must be applied equally, and must not be arbitrary or aimed at specific individuals.

Explanation:

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In a theocracy like Malaysia, what is a dual system of law?

Answers

In Malaysia, the legal system operates on a dual system of law, which consists of civil law and sharia law.

Civil law is based on the English common law system and is applicable to all Malaysians regardless of their religion. Sharia law, on the other hand, is based on Islamic law and is applicable only to Muslims. Sharia law governs various aspects of a Muslim's life, including marriage, divorce, inheritance, and certain criminal offenses. Sharia courts in Malaysia are responsible for enforcing and interpreting sharia law, and their decisions are binding on Muslims. The civil courts, on the other hand, have jurisdiction over all matters, including civil and criminal cases involving non-Muslims and civil cases involving Muslims. However, civil courts are not authorized to decide on matters that fall under sharia law. While the dual system of law in Malaysia is intended to accommodate the country's multi-religious and multi-ethnic population, it has also been criticized for creating inconsistencies and conflicts between the two legal systems. In some cases, there have been disputes between the civil courts and sharia courts regarding their respective jurisdictions and legal interpretations.

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QUESTION 2
Which of the following can the president issue regarding the execution of legislation that oversees the behavior of
officers and agencies of the executive branch?
the U.S. Constitution amendments
state statutes
executive orders
U.S. Criminal Codes
Click Save and Submit to save and submit Click Save alLaners to save all answers
Save Answers
ere to search
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RI
а

Answers

Answer: Executive orders

Explanation:

One of the powers that comes with being the Head of the Executive branch of government is the power to issue Executive orders. Executive orders are binding to the officers and agencies under the Executive branch as they are under the President.

Executive orders are to be treated as legislation with the full weight of the law. They are still subject to Judicial Review however, to ensure that the President is not issuing orders that contravene the Constitution.

The is useful when the most common value of a data set is required.

Answers

Answer:

The Mode is useful when the most common value of a data set is required.

Step By Step:

In statistics, the Mode is the most commonly observed value in a set of data.

stopping mail services and locking all windows and doors are typical items on a

Answers

Answer:  very expensive store

Explanation:

Other Questions
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