If 22.5 L of nitrogen at 748 mm Hg and 273 K are compressed to 725 mm Hg and 50.0 degree C at constant moles, what is the new volume in liters

Answers

Answer 1

The new volume of nitrogen at the given conditions is approximately 22.79 liters. After performing the necessary calculations, we find that the new volume of nitrogen is approximately 22.79 liters.

To determine the new volume of nitrogen, we can use the combined gas law equation, which relates the initial and final conditions of pressure, temperature, and volume.

The combined gas law equation is given as:

\((P1 * V1) / (T1) = (P2 * V2) / (T2)\)

Where:

\(P1\) = Initial pressure

\(V1\) = Initial volume

\(T1\)= Initial temperature (in Kelvin)

\(P2\) = Final pressure

\(V2\) = Final volume (unknown)

\(T2\) = Final temperature (in Kelvin)

Given:

\(P1\) = 748 mm Hg

\(V1\) = 22.5 L

\(T1\) = 273 K

\(P2\) = 725 mm Hg

\(T2\) = 50.0 degrees C = 50.0 + 273 = 323 K

Let's substitute these values into the equation and solve for \(V2\):

(748 mm Hg * 22.5 L) / (273 K) = (725 mm Hg * \(V2\)) / (323 K)

Simplifying the equation:

(748 mm Hg * 22.5 L * 323 K) = (725 mm Hg * \(V2\) * 273 K)

Dividing both sides by (725 mm Hg * 273 K):

(748 mm Hg * 22.5 L * 323 K) / (725 mm Hg * 273 K) =

Calculating the value:

\(V2\) = (748 * 22.5 * 323) / (725 * 273) ≈ 22.79 L

Therefore, the new volume of nitrogen at the given conditions is approximately 22.79 liters.

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Related Questions

Cardiorespiratory endurance is the ability of the heart and lungs to deliver oxygen to the muscles during physical activity.

a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

when assessing a patient's pertinent past history, you should ask which of the following questions? question 4 options: a) could you describe what happened? b) are you currently taking any medications? c) have you been having any medical problems? d) have you ever had a reaction to a medication?

Answers

Answer: b. are you currently taking any medications?

Explanation:  because, taking the wrong drugs can cause other illnesses

A client's bed partner reports the client often has irregular snoring and silence followed by a snort. Does this warrant further assessment?

Answers

Answer:

Yes, this is an indicator of obstructive sleep apnea

pg 1135

why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack​

Answers

Answer:

Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.

Explanation:

The  AED      

could change the heartbeat pattern

David has been having increasingly frequent migraine headaches. The practitioner will do further tests to determine if there is an underlying physical cause. While the tests are being done, what might the practitioner suggest to try to reduce the frequency or severity of the migraines

Answers

The practitioner might suggest to try to reduce the frequency or severity of the migraines is "limit your consumption of old wines, beers, and cheeses."

What is migraine headaches?

A migraines is a headaches that often affects one particular side of a head and can be extremely painful, throbbing, or pulsating. It frequently comes with high sensitivity to both light and sound as well as nausea and vomiting.

The pain from a migraine attack can be so intense that it interfere with your regular activities and can persist for hours or even days.

The following indications of a potentially more serious medical condition:

a sharp, sudden headache that feels like a thunderclapSymptoms of a stroke include a headache accompanied by fever, neck stiffness, confusion, convulsions, double vision, stiffness or rigidity in any area of the body, and seizures.following a head injury, headachea persistent headache that gets worse when you cough, work out, strain, or make an abrupt movementafter the age of 50, a new headache

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The PACU is close to the surgical suites for ______ transfer of patients after surgery. postoperatively.

Answers

Answer: rapid

Explanation: hope this helps!

The PACU is close to the surgical suites for the rapid transfer of patients after surgery.

What is PACU?

The Post Anesthesia Care Unit's mission is to make patients as comfortable as possible by managing their pain and preventing nausea. You will be attentively observed by a nurse who will check your vital signs throughout your stay in the PACU: Temperature.

Arterial pressure The post-anesthesia care unit is referred to as PACU. The stabilization of patients while undergoing continuing critical evaluation is the PACU's main goal.

The PACU nurse will transfer your family member to a hospital room or the Surgical Day Care (SDC) area once they have recovered from anesthesia. The patient's discharge from the PACU will be announced to the volunteer in the surgical waiting room, who will then let you know.

Therefore, for rapid patient transfers following surgery, the PACU is located close to the operating rooms.

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while examining an 11-month-old child, the nurse notes that the child can stand independently but cannot walk without support. how should the nurse intervene

Answers

The nurse should encourage the child to practice walking with support and provide opportunities for independent exploration.

At 11 months of age, it is typical for a child to be able to stand independently but not yet walk without support. This stage of development is known as cruising, where the child uses furniture or other objects to maintain balance and take steps. It is important for the nurse to intervene by encouraging the child to practice walking with support and providing opportunities for independent exploration.

To promote walking with support, the nurse can assist the child by holding their hands and guiding them to take steps. This can be done in a safe and secure environment, such as a play area with soft flooring or carpeting. The nurse should ensure that the child is wearing appropriate footwear, such as soft-soled shoes or socks, to aid in balance and stability.

In addition to supporting the child physically, the nurse should also provide encouragement and praise to boost the child's confidence. Celebrating small achievements, such as taking a few steps independently or maintaining balance for a longer duration, can motivate the child to continue practicing and developing their walking skills.

Furthermore, the nurse should create opportunities for independent exploration. This can be done by setting up a variety of toys and objects at different heights to encourage the child to move around and reach for them. The nurse can also encourage the child to walk between supportive objects, such as chairs or low tables, to enhance their balance and coordination.

By providing support, encouragement, and opportunities for exploration, the nurse can help the 11-month-old child develop their walking skills and progress towards independent walking.

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The imaging modality that most accurately depicts the location and size of fracture fragments is: Three-dimensional ultrasound. Radiography. Computed tomography. Magnetic resonance imaging.

Answers

The imaging modality that most accurately depicts the location and size of fracture fragments is computed tomography. A computed tomography (CT) scan is a medical imaging technique that utilizes x-rays and computer processing to create detailed pictures of the body.

It is a more sophisticated imaging modality that can provide better images of dense and complex structures than radiography. It can also display images in 3D or cross-sectional views. It is extremely accurate in detecting small fragments of bone and is, therefore, useful in diagnosing fractures and guiding treatment. CT scans can detect most types of fractures, including hairline fractures and can provide a detailed image of the location, size, and orientation of the fracture fragments.

CT scans are commonly used in the evaluation of complex fractures, such as those of the spine, hip, pelvis, and shoulder. They can also be used to assess the extent of damage caused by fractures, such as damage to blood vessels, nerves, and organs that may occur during a fracture. Therefore, computed tomography is the imaging modality that most accurately depicts the location and size of fracture fragments.

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Loss of recognition of time, place, location, or person is called ?

Answers

Answer:

Disorientation

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

Orientation

Explanation:

If a prescription is for an eye or car drop, the directions should begin with which c
the following?
O Take
O Drop
O Instill
Put

Answers

If a prescription is for an eye or ear drop, the directions should begin with option C, Instill.

When prescribing medications in the form of eye or ear drops, it is important to use precise and specific language to ensure proper administration and effectiveness of the treatment. The word "instill" is commonly used in healthcare to indicate the process of gently placing a liquid drop by drop into a specific body part.

Using the word "instill" in the directions for eye or ear drops is essential because it conveys the intended method of administration. It instructs the patient or caregiver to carefully apply the medication to the eye or ear, drop by drop, as prescribed.

Options A) "Take" and B) "Drop" is not as appropriate for eye or ear drops. "Take" is a more general term used for oral medications, instructing the patient to ingest or consume a medication. "Drop" alone may not provide enough clarity on how to apply the medication specifically to the eye or ear, potentially leading to improper administration.

In the context of eye or ear drops, the word "instill" ensures that patients follow the correct procedure and achieve the desired therapeutic effect. It is crucial to adhere to the precise instructions provided by healthcare professionals to ensure safety, effectiveness, and proper treatment of eye or ear conditions.


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The question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :

If a prescription is for an eye or ear drop, the directions should begin with Which option from the following?

A. Take

B. Drop

C. Instill

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and related lung diseases are all grouped under the broad term of:

Answers

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis and related lung diseases are all grouped under Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

What is COPD?COPD refers to a group of diseases that block the airflow and cause breathing-related problems. It is a term for a range of lung diseases like emphysema and chronic bronchitis.These diseases progress gradually, making it harder to breathe over time.Main cause of COPD is smoking.Lung diseases cannot be reversed but can be managed by lifestyle changes.Chronic bronchitis irritates your bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from your lungs.Emphysema is the breakdown of the walls of the tiny air sacs (alveoli) at the end of the bronchial tubes, in the bottom of your lung.

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8. Your patient is prescribed a medication 2.5 mg orally twice a day x 20 tablets. The
owner of the patient asks you how many days in total she should give her dog the
medication. What do you tell her?

Answers

Answer:

according to the tablet she will buy

Explanation:

if the pill is 2,5 it will be 10 days

if the pill is 5 mg and she needs to divide it to be suitable to the does which the dr described it will be 20 days

Must be solved with Microsoft Excel:
CareMed, an HMO health care provider, operates a 24-hour outpatient clinic in Draperton, near the Tech campus. The facility has a medical staff with doctors and nurses who see regular local patients according to a daily appointment schedule. However, the clinic sees a number of Tech students who visit the clinic each day and evening without appointments because their families are part of the CareMed network. The clinic has 12 nurses who work according to three 8-hour shifts. Five nurses are needed from 8:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m., four nurses work from 4:00 p.m. to midnight, and 3 nurses work overnight from midnight to 8:00 a.m. The clinic administrator wants to assign nurses to a shift according to their preferences and seniority (i.e., when the number of nurses who prefer a shift exceeds the shift demand, the nurses are assigned according to seniority). While the majority of nurses prefer the day shift, some prefer other shifts because of the work and school schedules of their spouses and families. Following are the nurses' shift preferences (where 1 is most preferred) and their years working at the clinic: Formulate and solve in Excel a linear programming model to assign the nurses to shifts according to their preferences and seniority.

Answers

The linear programming model in Excel can be used to assign nurses to shifts at CareMed outpatient clinic based on their preferences and seniority.

Setting up the Decision Variables

Create a table in Excel with the nurses' names, their shift preferences, and years of experience. Assign binary decision variables for each nurse and shift combination, indicating whether a nurse is assigned to a particular shift or not.

Formulating Objective Function

Define the objective function in Excel to maximize the overall satisfaction of nurses by considering their preferences and seniority. The objective function should take into account the shift preferences and seniority of the nurses.

Setting up Constraints

Create constraints in Excel to ensure that the number of nurses assigned to each shift matches the shift demand. Include constraints to limit the number of nurses assigned to each shift and ensure that the total number of nurses assigned to all shifts is equal to the total number of nurses available.

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a nurse is participating in a disaster simulation in which a toxic substance is released into a crowded stadium

Answers

The nurse should follow established disaster response protocols.

What actions should the nurse take during a simulated toxic substance release in a crowded stadium?

During a disaster simulation involving the release of a toxic substance in a crowded stadium, the nurse's primary responsibility is to follow established disaster response protocols.

These protocols are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of both the nurse and the affected individuals.

Firstly, the nurse should prioritize personal safety by donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) to minimize exposure to the toxic substance.

This may include gloves, masks, goggles, or full-body protective suits, depending on the nature of the toxic agent.

Secondly, the nurse should assess the situation and gather information.

This involves identifying the type of toxic substance released, understanding its potential health effects, and assessing the severity of the situation.

This information will help the nurse make informed decisions and provide appropriate care to affected individuals.

Finally, the nurse should collaborate with other healthcare professionals, emergency responders, and authorities involved in the disaster simulation.

This teamwork is crucial for coordinating efforts, implementing evacuation or containment measures, providing immediate medical assistance, and ensuring effective communication throughout the response.

It is important for the nurse to remain calm, focused, and adhere to established protocols to ensure the best possible outcome in managing the simulated disaster scenario.

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You are sitting on a beach doing yoga.
a) What division of the autonomic nervous system would be
activated?
b) State 3 things that would happen to your body when in this
state of relaxation.

Answers

a) The division of the autonomic nervous system that would be activated while doing yoga on a beach would be the parasympathetic nervous system.

b) When in a state of relaxation during yoga, the body undergoes various physiological changes. Three of the changes that occur are as follows:

Breathing rate decreases: When an individual is relaxed, their breathing rate decreases. This is because when we are relaxed, our oxygen demand is lower. This decrease in breathing rate results in more oxygen being available to our organs, and this makes them function more efficiently. The slower breathing rate also reduces stress levels and calms the mind.

Heart rate slows down: When an individual is relaxed, their heart rate slows down. This is because the body does not require as much oxygen during relaxation. A slower heart rate means that the heart is working more efficiently, and it does not need to pump as much blood around the body.

Blood pressure decreases: When an individual is relaxed, their blood pressure decreases. This is because the blood vessels in the body dilate, allowing blood to flow more freely. As a result, there is less pressure on the blood vessels, and the heart does not need to work as hard to pump blood around the body.

Overall, these changes lead to a state of deep relaxation and calmness that is beneficial for overall health and well-being.

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Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.

Answers

Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10  times greater than the RDA.

What are vitamins?

Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.

Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.

Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.

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What have one-way valves just like valves of the heart

Answers

Answer:

The heart consists of four chambers, two atria (upper chambers) and two ventricles (lower chambers). There is a valve through which blood passes before leaving each chamber of the heart. ... They act as one-way inlets of blood on one side of a ventricle and one-way outlets of blood on the other side of a ventricle.

Explanation:

Why is it important to understand the laws of your state regarding individuals with diabetes who
drive school buses and other forms of public transportation?

Answers

Answer:

Because you may have a heart attack

Explanation:

An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?

Answers

I can only provide some general insights, so it's important to note that I am not a lawyer, and legal cases can vary depending on jurisdiction and specific circumstances. In a situation where the biological father of a child born through in vitro fertilization (IVF) is different from the intended father, complex legal and ethical considerations arise.

1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.

2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.

3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.

Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.

It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.

difference between lugol's iodine and gram Iodine​

Answers

Answer:

Lugol's Iodine:is use for gram staining and can be use as an antiseptic and disinfectant for emergency disinfection of drinking water.

while

Gram Iodine:is use as a mordant in the gram staining process.

the nurse is caring for a client with an acute kidney injury (aki). the nurse instructs the client on the need to closely monitor what laboratory test value?

Answers

Answer:

The client should properly monitor the creatine levels that the patient has.

Explanation:

A blood test to measure creatinine levels, a chemical waste product produced by muscles, is typically used to diagnose AKI.

which of the following best describes ISMP

Answers

Answer:

ISMP defines high-alert medications as those bearing a height- ened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error.

Explanation:

What is ISMP?

The Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) is the only 501c (3) nonprofit organization devoted entirely to preventing medication errors. During its more than 25- year history, ISMP has helped make a difference in the lives of millions of patients and the healthcare professionals who care for them.

ISMP defines high-alert medications as those bearing a height- ened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error.

The suffix -dynia means

Answers

Answer:  - pain. Gastrodynia  

Explanation: Gastodynia also means pain in the stomach (gastr/o means stomach, and -dynia means pain)

Hope this helps you! ;-)

Autoantibodies are present in both gillian-barre syndrome and multiple sclerosis. Plasmapheresis is helpful in treating the former but not the latter. Explain this difference.

Answers

Answer:As I know

Explanation:Each condition affects a different part of your nervous system: MS damages the central nervous system. That's the brain and spinal cord. GBS damages the peripheral nervous system.

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Is this the correct order for neuron communication? true or false
Sensory -> Motor Neuron -> Brain -> Inter Neuron -> Reaction

Answers

True true true true true
True for all bye..
Good Luck

Considering the most common food allergens, which snack is LEAST likely to trigger an allergic reaction? -Fruited yogurt -Applesauce -Correct.

Answers

When considering the most common food allergens, the snack that is least likely to trigger an allergic reaction is Applesauce.

Applesauce is a simple and natural snack that typically does not contain common allergens such as dairy, nuts, or soy.

On the other hand, fruited yogurt may contain potential allergens like dairy and various fruits. Chocolate soy milk contains soy, which is a common allergen, and peanut butter crackers contain peanuts, another major allergen.

Therefore, Applesauce is the safest option among the given snacks for individuals concerned about food allergies.

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Considering the most common food allergens, which snack is LEAST likely to trigger an allergic reaction?

(a) Fruited yogurt

(b) Applesauce

(c) Chocolate soy milk

(d) Peanut butter crackers

Considering the most common food allergens, applesauce is LEAST likely to trigger an allergic reaction when compared to fruited yogurt.

Applesauce is the snack that is least likely to trigger an allergic reaction among the options provided. While it is possible for individuals to be allergic to any food, including apples, applesauce typically does not contain common food allergens that often trigger allergic reactions. Common food allergens include milk, eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, soy, wheat, fish, and shellfish.

Fruited yogurt, on the other hand, may contain allergenic ingredients such as milk, which can trigger allergies in individuals who are lactose intolerant or have a milk protein allergy. Additionally, the added fruits in the yogurt may introduce other potential allergens, depending on the specific fruit used.

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6. Which one of the following statements about the responsibilities of medical
billers and coders is correct?
A. They play a minor role in health care reimbursement.
B. They should not examine patient records.
C. They create documentation required for reimbursement from only third-party
payers.
O D. They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.

Answers

Answer:

Last option is the correct choice.

Explanation:

The following statement about the responsibilities of medical billers and coders is correct: They use three code sets: ICD, CPT, and HCPCS.

Best Regards!

D. They use three code sets ICD, CPT and HCPCS this should be the right one

Doctors often recommend a full examination of older americans hose behavior or personality changes suddenly and dramatically. why is this the case?

A. Mental symptoms can be signs of physical decline.

B. Older patients are less likely to change their ways than younger.

C. It can be more difficult to diagnose medical issues in older patients.

D. Families are generally not concerned by these behaviors but doctors are.​

Answers

Answer: B

Explanation:

The correct answer is: A. Mental symptoms can be signs of physical decline.

What is a physical decline?

Physical decline refers to a gradual decrease in physical function or ability. It is a normal part of the aging process and can include changes such as decreased muscle strength, decreased flexibility, and decreased endurance. Physical decline can also be caused by certain medical conditions or injuries, and it can be accelerated by a sedentary lifestyle or unhealthy habits such as smoking or poor nutrition.

In some cases, physical decline can be slowed or reversed through lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet. In other cases, medical treatment may be necessary to manage the symptoms of physical decline and improve the individual's quality of life.

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Todd is at increased risk of infection because of poor liver function. What information should the dietitian include as part of teaching that would best help to protect Todd

Answers

Answer: Avoid drinking unpasteurized juice

Explanation:

To protect Todd, he should avoid drinking unpasteurized juice. We should note that when a juice is pasteurized, it simply means that it's been heated, which then helps in killing harmful bacterias along the way.

Unpasteurized juice on the other hand contains harmful viruses and bacterias like cryptosporidium parasites and since Todd is at increased risk of infection because of poor liver function, this is bad for his liver and he should be advised not to drink it.

Answer:

Avoid drinking unpasteurized juice

Explanation:

A diabetes dietitian offers specialist evidence-based dietary advice to patients with diabetes while considering factors including nutritional status, medication, diabetes control and lifestyle.

It has been found that a carrier is better able to survive diseases with severe diarrhea. What would happen to the frequency of the EcG if there was an epidemic of cholera or other type of diarrhea producing disease

Answers

Answer:

The frequency of “c” would increase.

Explanation:

Remember, in the scenario, we are told the carrier survives better in an environment with severe diarrhea.

Hence, it is thus logical to expect the frequency of "c" to increase in an environment where there was an epidemic of cholera.

Other Questions
If Home is capital abundant, then when it begins to freely trade with the rest of the world, the return to capital in Home should _________ and the real wage in Home should _______.A. fall; riseB. fall; fallC. rise; riseD. rise; fall For section 2 in the project in Project 2: Remarkable Markets, the third objective listed in Activity Resources is:Question 5 options:Identify different types of competitors.Define market positioning.Describe how marketing affects businesses and other organizations. Recording the transactions for accepting a sales return of merchandise sold on account ______. 1 Stock Market Quote, July 7, 2016 (5) (6) (7 (9) (12) (13) (14) (15) (H %Chg (19) 52 Week High Close Sol Low VOI Div Open Yield PE Net Chg 52 Week Low YTD 6.Chy - 13.58 1.38 23,98 -0.15 23.15 0.66 22 In the united states, ____ would be considered an instrumental activity of daily living. group of answer choices opening a door purchasing a car walking taking a bath. If the market for hula-hoops is characterized by a very inelastic supply curve and a very elastic demand curve, an inward shift in the supply curve would be reflected primarily in the form of:A. higher pricesB. higher outputC. lower pricesD. lower output Explain, in detail to your friend what net working capital is. Your explanation should (6) include details with regards to the different components of net working capital. The reaction of hydrogen peroxide with iodine,H2O2(aq)+I2(aq) rightarrow OH(aq)+HIO(aq)is first order in H2O2 and first order in I2. If the concentration of H2O2 was increased by half and the concentration of I2 was increased by four, by what factor would the reaction rate increase? Who is your favorite superhero and why?Survey question the car passes over the top of a vertical curve at a with a speed of 50 km/hr and then passes through the bottom of a dip at b. the radii of curvature of the road at a and b are both 70 m. find the speed of the car at b if the normal force between the road and the tires at b is twice that at a. the mass center of the car is 1.2 meter from the road. Sarah, nikki and rachel went out for dinner. they left a $8.00 tip, which was 10% of the total bill. write and solve an equation to find the amount of the total bill. A person who is trying to quit smoking wears a rubber band around her wrist. every time she has a craving to smoke, she snaps the rubber band. in what type of therapeutic technique is she engaging Given that p and q each represents a simple statement, write the in p: The car has been repaired. q: The kids are home. r: We will visit Aunt Tillie. (~ r ~ q) v pa. We will not visit Aunt Tillie if and only if the kids are not home and the carb. If we will not visit Aunt Tillie then the kids are not home, and the car has be c. If we will not visit Aunt Tillie then the kids are not home, or the car has bee d. If the kids are not at home then we will not visit Aunt Tillie, or the car has b 1.3.3 Make a list of the even, compound factors of 60. Flyer Company sells a product in a competitive marketplace. Market analysis indicates that its product would probably sell at $48 per unit. Flyer's management desires a 12.5% profit margin on sales. Its current full cost for the product is $44 per unit. What is the desired profit per unit select the incorrect statement. b. the peptide c-n bond is a bit shorter than the c-n bond of a simple amine due to the resonance protein a. true b. false a. the peptide bond is planar due to resonance (sharing of 2 pairs of e-) between the carbonyl oxygen and the amide nitrogen c. rotation is permitted about the n--ca and the ca--c bonds. d. the omega bond is the located between the carbonyl carbon and the amide nitrogen e. none of the above what are the social context or physical environment where work will be performed? a. working conditions b. work contexts c. interests job analysis 1. The computer manufacturing company has a fixed cost of Br. 500,000 and a variable cost of Br. 2000 per each computer. If the selling price is 2% of the fixed cost per each product: A. What will be the total cost in producing a total of 3000 computers? R. What will be the revenue obtained by producing and colling a total of 2000.computore? If sin(A+B)=sinAcosB+cosAsinB and cos(AB)=cosAcosB+sinAsinB, find the values of (i) sin75 and (ii) cos15 For x(t), if it is periodic, find the fundamental period T, and fundamental frequency wo. Otherwise, prove that the signal is not periodic. x(t) = x1