Many injuries to the skin heal completely, whereas injuries to the spinal cord, which is made up mainly of nerve cells, may result in paralysis. What characteristic of the two types of cells in these body parts accounts for the difference
Answers
Injuries to the spinal cord that result in paralysis are caused due to the damaged nerve cells. The difference between the two types of cells in these body parts that accounts for the difference is their capacity for regeneration.
The skin is made up of cells that are continuously regenerated throughout life, and when an injury occurs, the cells in the surrounding area migrate to the injury site and divide to repair the damaged tissue. This leads to the complete healing of the injury. However, the spinal cord, which is made up mainly of nerve cells, does not have the same capacity for regeneration as the skin.
When nerve cells are damaged, they cannot divide to create new cells, which means that once they are lost, they cannot be replaced.
This can result in paralysis, as the damaged nerve cells cannot transmit signals between the brain and the rest of the body.
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Related Questions
The type of transcriptional control in operons in which a regulatory protein is an activator and stimulates transcription is called.
Answers
The type of transcriptional control in operons in which a regulatory protein is an activator and stimulates transcription is called positive control.
What controls the transcription of an operon?The regulatory DNA sequences are the important class of factors that controls the transcription of an operon.
The types of transcriptional control in operons in which a regulatory protein is an inhibitor and inhibits transcription are called negative control.
Therefore, the positive control and negative control of the transcription of an operon depend on the nature of regulatory proteins.
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A typical, active young man requires 2,800 kilocalories of food energy a day to fuel metabolism, movement, active transport, etc. The energy stored in the third phosphodiester bond of ATP is 0.0145 kcal/gram. a. If the energy from the man’s food were all stored as ATP, how much ATP would be produced each day from ADP and Pi? b. The man actually has about 50 grams of ATP. What does this mean in terms of ATP hydrolysis and synthesis?
Answers
Cellular functions continuously drain ATP, which is then replenished by cellular respiration (resulting in a high turnover rate). Energy is generated and nutrients are used intracellularly, inside the cell.
What is cellular respiration?
A sequence of chemical processes known as cellular respiration convert glucose into ATP, which can then be used as energy for a variety of bodily functions. Glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation are the three basic processes that take place during cellular respiration.
What is ATP?
Adenosine 5′-triphosphate abbreviated as ATP. At the cellular level, energy is used and stored as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenine, ribose, and three serially bound phosphate groups make up the structure of ATP, which is a nucleoside triphosphate.
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When a substance changes from a liquid to a gas, what happens to the
motion of its particles?
A. They move at the same speed but in random directions:
B. They move more quickly and independently.
C. They move more slowly and are fixed in place.
OD. They move at the same speed and in the same direction.
Answers
Answer: B. They move more quickly and independently.
Explanation:
In gases the particles move rapidly in all directions, frequently colliding with each other and the side of the container. With an increase in temperature, the particles gain kinetic energy and move faster.
During anaphase I of meiosis, ________ move toward opposite cell poles, whereas during anaphase II of meiosis, ________ are separated.
Multiple Choice
A - sister chromatids; nonsister chromatids
B- sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes
C- homologous chromosomes; nonsister chromatids
D- homologous chromosomes; nonhomologous chromosomes
E- homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
Answers
During anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes move toward opposite cell poles, whereas during anaphase II of meiosis, sister chromatids are separated, option E is correct.
Each homologous chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids that are still attached to each other at their centromeres. Therefore, it is the homologous chromosomes, not sister chromatids, that are separated during anaphase I of meiosis. During anaphase II of meiosis, the sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated and pulled to opposite cell poles.
This occurs after the chromosomes have already undergone crossing over and recombination during meiosis I, which results in genetic variation. The separation of sister chromatids ensures that each gamete receives only one copy of each chromosome, which is important for maintaining the correct chromosome number in the offspring, option E is correct.
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Explain why individuals with XP show such an early age of onset. XP individuals lack one or more genes involved in RNA translation. XP individuals lack one or more genes involved in DNA repair. XP individuals lack one or more genes involved in DNA replication. XP individuals lack one or more genes involved in RNA transcription.
Answers
Individuals with XP show an early age of onset because they lack one or more genes involved in DNA repair.
Xeroderma Pigmentosum (XP) is a rare genetic disorder in which the individual's ability to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet (UV) radiation is impaired. The reason for this impaired DNA repair is due to the lack of one or more genes involved in the DNA repair process.
When these genes are not functioning correctly, DNA damage accumulates, leading to an increased risk of skin cancer, premature skin aging, and other health problems. Since DNA damage from UV radiation can occur from an early age due to sun exposure, the early onset of XP symptoms is observed in affected individuals.
In summary, the early age of onset in individuals with XP is primarily due to their inability to repair DNA damage caused by UV radiation, resulting from the lack of one or more genes involved in the DNA repair process.
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You have carried out a genetic screen and isolated two pure-breeding lines of zebrafish with abnormal tail fin shapes. Both of the abnormal phenotypes are inherited in a recessive fashion. What is the easiest way to tell whether these two lines have mutations in the same gene or in two different genes?.
Answers
A complementation test is the simplest approach to determine if the mutation that causes aberrant phenotypes and is inherited recessively is in the same gene or in two distinct genes.
A mutation is a change in the regular sequence of genes. It could take the shape of deletion, addition, duplication, reversion, and so on. In general, mutations have negative consequences, although certain mutations have no effect at all. Silent mutations are such mutations.
The complementation test is performed to evaluate if the mutations are caused by the same version of a gene or by two separate genes. In this experiment, two mutants are crossed and their F1 progeny are observed. If the wild type attribute arises, the mutation could occur in two separate genes.
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What makes an energy resource non-renewable?
Please explain well, will give brainliest.
Answers
What let us know what are non-renewable resources:
Resources which can’t be renewed again after usage , it takes millions of year to form them again
These include fossil fuels
If we go on using fossil fuels it will be empty and we will run out of it.
A energy resource like fossil fuels is an non renewable! But why? Because rate of consumption is more than the rate of formation !
To sustain them , we must adapt to using of Renewable resources like Wind energy, hydro , wind etc .
I hope it’s clear!
Have a good day :)
Which of the following can lie downstream of RTK activation as well as GPCR activation? Select any/all answers that apply.
activation of GBPs (GTP-binding proteins)
Notch activation
activation of kinases
Wnt activation
activation of transcription factors
Answers
Both RTK (Receptor Tyrosine Kinase) activation and GPCR (G-protein coupled receptor) activation can lead to downstream activation of GBPs, kinases, and transcription factors.
RTK activation and GPCR activation are two distinct signalling pathways involved in cellular communication. They can converge on common downstream signalling molecules. One such molecule is GBPs (GTP-binding proteins) which can be activated by both RTK and GPCR signaling. GBPs play a crucial role in transmitting signals and regulating various cellular processes.
Additionally, both RTK and GPCR activation can result in the activation of kinases. Kinases are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups to other proteins, thereby regulating their activity. The activation of kinases can trigger a cascade of signalling events leading to diverse cellular responses.
Moreover, both RTK and GPCR activation can ultimately lead to the activation of transcription factors. Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences and regulate gene expression. They play a vital role in controlling the synthesis of proteins and influencing cellular functions.
On the other hand, Notch activation and Wnt activation are independent signalling pathways that are not directly associated with either RTK or GPCR signalling. Notch signalling is a highly conserved pathway involved in cell fate determination and development, while Wnt signalling regulates various processes during embryonic development and adult tissue homeostasis. Although they have critical roles in cellular signalling, they do not lie downstream of RTK or GPCR activation.
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Scientists want to track the wind speeds and precipitation for a hurricane that will affect the entire East Coast of the United States. Which weather equipment would be best to measure the impact of the storm for this entire region? A. an anemometer B. a rain gauge C. Doppler Radar D. global positioning system (GPS)
Answers
Answer:
A anemometer an instrument for measuring the speed of the wind, or of any current of gas.
GPS is to see where you on on the earth so this is a no.
rain gauge only shows the amount of rain so this is a no
Doppler radar determine's the location and velocity of a storm, clouds, precipitation. So therefore, this is your answer.
Explanation:
which chromosome is most likely to experience crossing over? 1 (2000 genes) 18 (200 genes) x (800 genes) y (50 genes)
Answers
Chromosome 1 is most likely to experience crossing over, as it has the highest number of genes (2,000) compared to chromosomes 18 (200 genes), X (800 genes), and Y (50 genes).
The chromosome that is most likely to experience crossing over is chromosome 1, which has 2000 genes. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis, and it occurs more frequently in chromosomes that have a higher number of genes. Therefore, chromosome 1, with its large number of genes, is more likely to undergo crossing over than the other chromosomes listed (18, X, and Y). Crossing over occurs more frequently in regions with higher gene density, increasing the genetic diversity in the offspring.
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when a plant wilts, the stomata close. how does this help the plant?
Answers
The closure of a plant's stomata will retain water when the plant becomes dehydrated and wilts.
Two guard cells surround each stoma, a small pore or hole, and they expand and contract to close and open the stoma. The carbon dioxide content and the plant's water balance act as two controls on the opening and shutting of the stomata.
Guard cells inflate and bend as a result of water entering them through osmotic movement. The holes are opened by the guard cells expanding. Through open stomata, the plant absorbs carbon dioxide for use in photosynthesis. Through open stomata, oxygen and water vapor are also expelled back into the atmosphere.
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Please please guys I need help for this all question in biology.
Answers
laci- mutant create an abnormal repressor protein that is unable to bind the operator and results in a constitutive expression of lac z and lac y. suppose, another kind of lacis mutant happened to be generated that created a kind of repressor protein molecule that was unable to bind the inducer (allo-lactose) and stays bound to operator all the time. what would happen in that case to the expression of lac z and lac y?
Answers
The expression of lac z and lac y would be significantly diminished or entirely suppressed in the case of a LacI mutant that produces a repressor protein that is unable to bind the inducer (allo-lactose) and instead remains attached to the operator all the time.
The operator of the lac operon is bound by the LacI protein, which stops the transcription of the lac z and lac y genes. The protein undergoes a conformational shift when the inducer molecule (allo-lactose) attaches to LacI, which reduces the protein's affinity for the operator and promotes transcription of the lac genes.
Instead, the protein would always be connected to the operator in the mutant LacI protein that is unable to engage the inducer, therefore preventing the transcription of the lac genes. This is due to the fact that transcription cannot take place without the conformational change that the inducer causes in order to reduce the repressor's affinity for the operator.
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pleeeasseee i need help
Answers
Answer:
"DRY MIX"
Dependent responding (variable) X axis
Manipulated independent (variable) Y axis
The drinks is the dependent variable because it "responds" to the temperature and is "dependent" on the temperature. The temperature determines the drinks sold-but the drinks sold doesn't determine the temperature.
biological theories of drug abuse focus primarily on what 3 principles?
Answers
Biological theories of drug abuse focus primarily on three principles, which are the genetic vulnerability theory, the dopamine reward theory, and the stress and adaptation theory.
Biological theories of drug abuse focus primarily on three principles, which are the genetic vulnerability theory, the dopamine reward theory, and the stress and adaptation theory. These theories assume that biological factors contribute to drug addiction, such as genetics, brain chemistry, and brain structure.
Genetic Vulnerability Theory:This theory suggests that drug addiction is a genetic condition, and some people have a predisposition to addiction due to their genes. Children born to parents who are drug addicts are more likely to become drug addicts than children whose parents are not. This theory focuses on how genes may influence a person's response to drugs and how drug addiction can be passed down through families.
Dopamine Reward Theory:This theory suggests that drug addiction occurs because drugs stimulate the brain's pleasure centers, leading to the release of dopamine. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a key role in the brain's reward system. The dopamine reward theory states that drugs cause a surge in dopamine, which makes the brain associate drug use with pleasure and reward. This theory focuses on how drugs hijack the brain's natural reward system and how drug addiction can be seen as a form of learning.Stress.
Adaptation Theory:This theory suggests that drug addiction is a response to stress. It suggests that individuals use drugs to cope with stress, trauma, or negative emotions. The stress and adaptation theory also proposes that repeated drug use changes the brain's structure and function, leading to tolerance and dependence.
This theory focuses on how drugs can be used as a coping mechanism and how drug addiction is a form of maladaptive coping mechanism. Therefore, these three principles can be seen as interconnected as they all contribute to biological factors that lead to drug addiction.
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Most chromosomal defects result from ____
O X-linked disorders
O mistakes occurring during mitosis
O mistakes occurring during meiosis
O recessive disorders
Answers
Most chromosomal defects result from mistakes occurring during meiosis, option C is correct.
Meiosis is the specialized cell division process that produces gametes (sperm and eggs) in sexually reproducing organisms. During meiosis, the chromosomes undergo crossing over, independent assortment, and segregation, which are critical for genetic diversity. However, errors can occur during these processes, leading to chromosomal abnormalities.
These errors include nondisjunction, where chromosomes fail to separate properly, resulting in an abnormal number of chromosomes in the resulting gametes. Such abnormalities can lead to conditions like Down syndrome, Turner syndrome, and Klinefelter syndrome. These chromosomal defects are primarily caused by mistakes that occur during meiosis rather than X-linked disorders or recessive disorders, option C is correct.
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The complete question is:
Most chromosomal defects result from ____
A. X-linked disorders
B. mistakes occurring during mitosis
C. mistakes occurring during meiosis
D.r ecessive disorders
The rostral end expansion initiates the division of the neural tube into three primary vesicles known as ______.
Answers
The rostral end expansion initiates the division of the neural tube into three primary vesicles known as neural tube.
The cephalic end of the neural tube indicates three dilations, the primary brain vesicles, The prosencephalon, or forebrain, The mesencephalon, or midbrain. The mesencephalon is the number one vesicle of the embryonic mind that doesn't notably alternate thru the relaxation of embryonic improvement.
It begins at some point of the week of gestation. This process is called number one neurulation, and it begins with an open neural tube. then ends with the neural plate bending in unique, awesome steps. Those steps in the end lead to the neural plate final to form the neural tube.
The anterior give up of the neural tube develops into the mind, and the posterior vicinity turns into the spinal wire. Tissues at the edges of the neural groove, when it closes off, are known as the neural crest and migrate thru the embryo to give upward push to PNS systems as well as a few non-worried tissues.
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fossil 1 (2x) how would you describe the appearance of this fossil? what type of fossilization has occurred?
Answers
The appearance of fossil 1 (2x) can only be determined if we are provided with the image of the fossil. We cannot describe the appearance of a fossil without looking at it.There are different types of fossilization, and it is important to understand what has occurred to fossilize the organism. The type of fossilization that has occurred can be determined by looking at the mineralization and preservation of the fossil.
Fossil 1's appearance and the type of fossilization that has occurred:
The appearance of fossil 1 (2x) can only be determined if we are provided with the image of the fossil. We cannot describe the appearance of a fossil without looking at it.There are different types of fossilization, and it is important to understand what has occurred to fossilize the organism. The type of fossilization that has occurred can be determined by looking at the mineralization and preservation of the fossil.
This will give clues about how the organism became a fossil.The different types of fossilization are as follows:
1. Carbonization: Carbonization occurs when the organic matter leaves a carbon imprint. The remaining matter is usually thin and flattened.
2. Petrification: Petrification occurs when minerals replace organic matter, which is preserved in its original form.
3. Molds and Casts: Molds are created when organic matter is buried in sediment. The sediment hardens, and the organism decomposes, leaving an empty space. This is called a mold. Casts are created when the mold is filled with minerals or sediment.
4. Trace Fossils: Trace fossils are created by organisms that leave behind impressions or tracks. These include footprints, burrows, and bite marks.
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The scientific method is the process that scientists use to find out new information. It involves a question, a hypothesis, a prediction, collecting data, and analyzing that data to make a conclusion. How would you use the scientific method to answer this question: Do mice live longer when they are fed high-sugar diets? (15 points)
Answers
Answer:
Science deals with emperical to finding solutions to problem
Explanation:
This research should be subject to case study. You will select two groups of mice. One group with high feed of sugar diet and second group with a minimum diet of sugar. You will study the two groups in order to know which one lives longer
Would more aliens have antennae or not? Why?
Answers
I would say no because in si-fi movies and nobles they do but there is a little chance of them having it
will give brainliest
Answers
Answer:
ahsdbfoaishdbfjnleaksfd
Explanation:
duh easy
Mohammed wishes to travel to South America in his yacht. Which knowledge of the oceans will help Mohammed navigate?
Answers
Answer:
A: Ocean Currents
Explanation:
Answer is on quizlett
9.
Scientists break down evolution into which two categories?
- macroevolution and genetic drift
- microevolution and mass. extinction
-natural selection and macroevolution
-microevolution and macroevolution
Answers
Natural selection and macroevolution
Hope this helps :)
Can you plz answer this that will be lovely thank you (:
Answers
Answer:
helium, lithium, boron,
Explanation:
sorry these are all I can think of right now
Introduction to punnett squares and alleles worksheet
Answers
A Punnett square is a diagram that is utilized to calculate the likelihood of an offspring inheriting a specific trait from its parents. This diagram is commonly used in the study of genetics and is named after its creator, Reginald Punnett.
Punnett squares utilize alleles, which are variations of a particular gene that can produce differing traits. Alleles are usually represented as letters, with uppercase letters representing dominant alleles and lowercase letters representing recessive alleles.
The Punnett square is made up of two axes, with the father’s alleles listed along the top and the mother’s alleles listed along the side. The possible combinations of these alleles are then shown within the squares of the grid. For example, if a father has an A allele and a mother has a B allele, their offspring could inherit an AB allele, an AA allele, a BB allele, or a BA allele.
Punnett squares are used to study a variety of genetic traits, such as blood type, eye color, and height, and can provide useful information about inheritance patterns.
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Which statement accurately describes the bond that forms between carbon and oxygen to create carbon dioxide
Answers
Answer:
It's a non-polar covalent bond.
Explanation:
Non-polar means they do not interact with water. Carbon dioxide and Oxygen bonded together by sharing electrons equally.
Trade winds blow from the horse latitudes toward the______.
equator
the tropics
the poles
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is - the equator.
Explanation:
The trade winds are the kind of wind that blows towards the equator from the southeast in the southern hemisphere or the northeast in the northern hemisphere, especially at sea.
The horse latitudes are present in both the northern hemisphere and southern hemisphere with calm air and occur between trade winds and the westerlies that move towards the equator.
which part of a dna molecule is responsible for the direct coding
Answers
The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule,is a part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism.
A polymer made of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to create a double helix is called deoxyribonucleic acid. All known organisms and many viruses have genetic information in the polymer that is necessary for their development, operation, growth, and reproduction. Nucleic acids include DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA). Nucleic acids are one of the four main categories of macromolecules that are necessary for all known forms of life, along with proteins, lipids, and complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides). Nucleotides are organic compounds made up of a phosphate and a nucleoside. They function as monomeric units of the key macromolecules found in all living forms on Earth, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA), which are both nucleic acid polymers.
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complete question:Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?
a. The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.
b. The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.
c. The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.
d. The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.
Please Help! Urgent!
While running in the Olympic marathon, a runner produces a lot of extra heat in their leg muscles and loses a lot of water by breathing and sweating.
Explain the processes in the body which prevent the runner
a) Overheating
b) Dehydrating
(each question is worth 5 marks, please keep this in mind whilst answering)
Answers
Overheating and dehydration during marathon can be prevented by wearing pre-cooling vests and drinking adequate amounts of fluids.
Dehydration is the excessive loss of water in the body. This can happen due to less intake of water, due to some disease or during heavy workouts. During workouts the body produces heat to burn the calories and therefore to cool down the body, water is released in the form of sweat.
Pre-cooling vests are the type of vests that can be wore some time before any physical activity. In these vests, there are various pockets present where ice packs can be stored. This delays the production of excessive heat in the body and sweating. The vests can be wore during warm-up but must be removed during excessive physical activities.
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What is the cost (in atp equivalents) of transforming glucose to pyruvate via glycolysis and back again to glucose via gluconeogenesis?
Answers
4 ATP equivalents per glucose molecule are required for transforming glucose to pyruvate via glycolysis and back again to glucose via gluconeogenesis.
Glycolysis is the process of breakdown of glucose to gain energy. The end product formed in this process is 2 molecules of pyruvate from one glucose molecule. Glycolysis is also known by the name EMP (Embden-Meyerhoff-Parnas) pathway.
Gluconeogenesis is the reverse process of glycolysis. Glucose s formed back from pyruvate in this process. This process is carried out when body glucose levels are low or for the regulation of acid-base balance and amino acid metabolism.
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