Please help!! I need it now please!!

This is my last points I really need to know the answer please

Please make sure that it’s the correct answer pleasseeee!!

Answer:

Slope: \(-\frac{3}{4}\)

Y intercept: 7

Equation: \(y=-\frac{3}{4}x+7\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope is found by doing the equation \(\frac{rise}{run}\). When looking at the first two points, it's shown that the rise (difference between the two y values) is -3 (since it decreased by 3) and the run (difference between the two x values) is 4 (since it increased by 4).

This gives us a slope of \(-\frac{3}{4}\).

The y intercept is found by looking at the y value when x = 0. In this picture, it is clear that it is 7.

The equation you want to use is y = mx + b , where b is the y intercept and m is the slope. Just plug in the numbers and you got your equation!

Answer:

See below.....Something is wrong with your question

Step-by-step explanation:

v = k d^3    or     k = v/d^3   = 576/12^3 = 1/3

when depth (???   m??)  is 1300 :

  1/3 =  v / (1300^3)  = 732 333 333 .3 cm^3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the y-intercept on a graph, you must look at where the line intercepts through the y-axis.

For this problem it would be 16

The random variable Y = F(X) is uniformly distributed over (0, 1).

Let's start by finding the CDF of Y uniformly distributed. The CDF of Y is defined as the probability that Y takes on a value less than or equal to a given number y. Mathematically, it can be written as:

CDF_Y(y) = P(Y ≤ y)

Now, let's consider a specific value y in the interval (0, 1). We want to find the probability that Y is less than or equal to y, i.e., P(Y ≤ y).

P(Y ≤ y) = P(F(X) ≤ y)

Since F is the CDF of the random variable X, we can rewrite this as:

P(F(X) ≤ y) = P(X ≤ F^(-1)(y))

Here, F^(-1) represents the inverse function of F. Note that F^(-1)(y) is the value of X for which the CDF equals y.

Now, let's analyze this expression further. Since X is a continuous random variable, its CDF F is a continuous function. This implies that P(X = F^(-1)(y)) = 0 for any specific value of y.

Therefore, we can rewrite the probability as:

P(X ≤ F^(-1)(y)) = P(X < F^(-1)(y))

The inequality X < F^(-1)(y) can be written in terms of F as:

F(X) < y

Since Y = F(X), we can rewrite the inequality as:

Y < y

Now, let's find the probability P(Y < y):

P(Y < y) = P(F(X) < y) = P(X < F^(-1)(y))

Since X is a continuous random variable, P(X < F^(-1)(y)) is the same as the CDF of X evaluated at F^(-1)(y), which is F(F^(-1)(y)).

Therefore, we have:

P(Y < y) = F(F^(-1)(y))

Now, consider the case when y = 1. The probability P(Y < 1) is:

P(Y < 1) = F(F^(-1)(1))

But F^(-1)(1) is the maximum value that X can take, which is denoted as x_max.

Therefore, we have:

P(Y < 1) = F(x_max)

Since x_max is the largest possible value for X, its CDF F(x_max) is equal to 1.

So, we have:

P(Y < 1) = 1

Now, consider the case when y = 0. The probability P(Y < 0) is:

P(Y < 0) = F(F^(-1)(0))

But F^(-1)(0) is the minimum value that X can take, which is denoted as x_min.

Therefore, we have:

P(Y < 0) = F(x_min)

Since x_min is the smallest possible value for X, its CDF F(x_min) is equal to 0.

So, we have:

P(Y < 0) = 0

In summary, we have shown that for any y in the interval (0, 1):

P(Y < y) = F(F^(-1)(y))

Since the CDF of Y satisfies the properties of a uniform distribution over (0, 1), we can conclude that the random variable Y = F(X) is uniformly distributed over (0, 1).

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Given:

Two values of a linear function are f (6) = 8 and f (9) = 3.

To find:

The linear function.

Solution:

According to the question f (6) = 8 and f (9) = 3, it means the function passes through (6,8) and (9,3).

If a linear function passes through two points then the equation is

\(y-y_1=\dfrac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}(x-x_1)\)

So, the equation of linear function is

\(y-8=\dfrac{3-8}{9-6}(x-6)\)

\(y-8=\dfrac{-5}{3}(x-6)\)

\(y-8=-\dfrac{5}{3}(x)-\dfrac{5}{3}(-6)\)

\(y-8=-\dfrac{5}{3}(x)+10\)

Add 8 on both sides.

\(y=-\dfrac{5}{3}(x)+10+8\)

\(y=-\dfrac{5}{3}(x)+18\)

Function form is,

\(f(x)=-\dfrac{5}{3}(x)+18\)

Therefore, the required linear function is \(f(x)=-\dfrac{5}{3}(x)+18\).

Step-by-step explanation:

whw

where is the diagram?

Since 7 is the smallest integer that divides 173/168, we can conclude that the sum is not a prime number.

How to solve?

To add the fractions 4/7, 1/8, and 1/3, we need to find a common denominator.

The prime factorization of 7 is 7, the prime factorization of 8 is 2²3, and the prime factorization of 3 is 3. The least common multiple (LCM) of these three numbers is 7× 2²3× 3 = 168.

So, we can rewrite the fractions with the common denominator of 168:

4/7 = 96/168

1/8 = 21/168

1/3 = 56/168

Now we can add these fractions:

96/168 + 21/168 + 56/168 = 173/168

To check if this sum is a prime number, we can use trial division by checking all the integers between 2 and the√ of 173/168 (which is approximately 1.053):

2 does not divide 173/168

3 does not divide 173/168

4 does not divide 173/168

5 does not divide 173/168

6 does not divide 173/168

7 divides 173/168 (24 times)

8 does not divide 173/168

9 does not divide 173/168

...

Since 7 is the smallest integer that divides 173/168, we can conclude that the sum is not a prime number.

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Complete question:

What is the result of adding 4/7, 1/8, and 1/3, and is the sum a prime number?

We have to test the given series for convergence or divergence using the Alternating Series Test.The Alternating Series Test states that if an alternating series satisfies the following two conditions, then the series converges:a_n≥0 for all n.

a_n is decreasing with limit 0 as n approaches infinity.Using the above test, we have to test the series for convergence or divergence. The given series is 7-8+7/10-7/12+7/14-7/16+...On simplifying the series, we get the series as:7 - 8 + 7/10 - 7/12 + 7/14 - 7/16 +...We see that the series is alternating with a_n = (-1)^(n+1) * 7/(2n).Now we check if a_n≥0 for all n. As 7 and 2n are positive for all values of n, hence a_n is always positive for all n.

Therefore, the first condition of the Alternating Series Test is satisfied.Next, we need to check if a_n is decreasing with limit 0 as n approaches infinity.We have to evaluate the limit of a_n as n approaches infinity.Let us simplify the equation for a_n by removing the constants. We get, a_n = (-1)^(n+1) * 1/n.Using the limit definition, we have to check if the limit of a_n as n approaches infinity is 0. We have,L = lim n→∞ (-1)^(n+1) * 1/nHere, L = 0 as the denominator grows indefinitely large and the numerator is alternating between -1 and 1. Hence, the second condition of the Alternating Series Test is satisfied. Therefore, the given series converges.

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The value of the angle θ₁, located in Quadrant IV with sin(θ₁) = -13/85, is such that cosθ₁ = 84/85.

In the given scenario, the angle θ₁ is located in Quadrant IV and sin(θ₁) is given as -13/85. We can use the trigonometric identity to determine the value of cosθ₁.

Using the Pythagorean identity sin²θ + cos²θ = 1, we can substitute sin(θ₁) = -13/85:

(-13/85)² + cos²θ₁ = 1

Simplifying:

169/7225 + cos²θ₁ = 1

cos²θ₁ = 1 - 169/7225

cos²θ₁ = (7225 - 169)/7225

cos²θ₁ = 7056/7225

Taking the square root of both sides, we get:

cosθ₁ = √(7056/7225)

Since the angle θ₁ is located in Quadrant IV where cosθ₁ is positive, the value of cosθ₁ is:

cosθ₁ = √(7056/7225)

Simplifying the square root:

cosθ₁ = 84/85

Therefore, the value of the angle cosθ₁ is 84/85.

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The complete question is:

The angle θ₁ is located in Quadrant IV and  sin(θ₁) = -13/85. What is the value of the angle cosθ₁?

Answer:

  1,000 ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume is given by ...

  V = Bh

where B is the area of the base, and h is the height. For the given dimensions, the volume is ...

  V = (200 ft²)(5 ft) = 1000 ft³

The inverse of the function is y = ( 1/5 )x - 6.

An expression, rule, or law in mathematics that establishes the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable. In mathematics, functions exist everywhere, and they are crucial for constructing physical links in the sciences.

Consider the function,

y = 5x + 30

To find the inverse of the function we interchange x and y then find the equation for y.

Therefore, after interchanging x and y:

x = 5y + 30

Subtracting 30 from each side of the equation.

x - 30 = 5y + 30 - 30

x - 30 = 5y

Now, dividing the whole equation by 5

( x - 30 ) / 5 = 5y / 5

y = ( 1/5 )x - 30/ 5

y = ( 1/5 )x - 6

Therefore, the inverse of the function y = 5x + 30 is y = ( 1/5 )x - 6.

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The recursive formula for computing v_n(s, y) is given by \(v_n(s, y) = \frac{1}{1+r} [p~ v_{n+1}(su, y+s) + q~ v_{n+1}(sd, y+s)],\) where p~ and q~ are the risk-neutral probabilities.

The value of the Asian call option at time n depends on the stock price S_n and the sum of stock prices Y_n. The recursive formula calculates the option value at time n based on the option values at time n+1.

In this case, the formula states that the option value at time n is equal to the discounted expected value of the option at time n+1, considering both the up and down states of the stock price. The risk-neutral probabilities p~ and q~ are used to weigh the probabilities of the up and down states.

The formula takes into account the two possible scenarios: if the stock price goes up to su, the option value at time n+1 is v_{n+1}(su, y+s), where y+s represents the updated sum of stock prices. Similarly, if the stock price goes down to sd, the option value at time n+1 is v_{n+1}(sd, y+s).

By recursively applying this formula from time n=2 to n=0, we can compute the price of the Asian option at time zero.

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With a credit card balance of $17,426, a minimum monthly payment of $461, and an interest rate of 15.5%, we need to calculate the number of years it will take to pay off the card without adding any additional debt.

To determine the time required to pay off the credit card, we consider the monthly payment and the interest rate. Each month, a portion of the payment goes towards reducing the balance, while the remaining balance accrues interest.

To calculate the time needed for repayment, we track the decreasing balance each month. First, we determine the interest accrued on the remaining balance by multiplying it by the monthly interest rate (15.5% divided by 12).

We continue making monthly payments until the remaining balance reaches zero. By dividing the initial balance by the monthly payment minus the portion allocated to interest, we obtain the number of months needed for repayment. Finally, we divide the result by 12 to convert it into years.

In this scenario, it will take approximately 3.81 years to pay off the credit card (17,426 / (461 - (17,426 * (15.5% / 12))) / 12).

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Answer: 1/50

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: We need to multiply the numerator and denominator by 100 since there are 2 digits after the decimal.

0.02 = (0.02 × 100) / 100

= 2 / 100 [ since 0.02 × 100 = 2 ]

Step 2: Reduce the obtained fraction to the lowest term

Since 2 is the common factor of 2 and 100 so we divide both the numerator and denominator by 2.

2/100 = (2 ÷ 2) / (100 ÷ 2) = 1/50

By SAS similarity, ΔKML and ΔRTL are similar triangles. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

From the given figure, KR=9 units, RL=15 units, MT=7.5 units and TL=12.5 units.

Two triangles are similar if the angles are the same size or the corresponding sides are in the same ratio. Either of these conditions will prove two triangles are similar.

Consider ΔKML and ΔRTL, we get

RL/KL =15/(15+9)

= 15/24

= 5/8

TL/ML =12.5/(12.5+7.5)

= 12.5/20

= 5/8

Here, RL/KL=TL/ML

Here, ∠KLM≅∠RLT

By SAS similarity, ΔKML and ΔRTL are similar triangles

So, ∠KMT≅∠RTL

By SAS similarity, ΔKML and ΔRTL are similar triangles. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

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Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

got it right in edmentum

The angles which makes 45° and 90° in square are shown below.

The square is a 4 sided figure, each side of the square is equal and make a right angle.

The area of square having sided a unit can be given by a² square unit.

Given that,

ABCD is a square,

The angles which are 45°,

∠ CAD, ∠ CAB, ∠ DBA, ∠ DBC, ∠ ACB, ∠ ACD, ∠ BDA, ∠ BDC

The angle which are 90°,

∠ DAB, ∠ ABC, ∠ BCD,  ∠ ADC

And central angles also make 90°,

∠ AEB, ∠ BEC, ∠ CED, ∠ DEA

In square there is no angle that neither makes 45° nor 90°.

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Angles categorized in 45° and 90° are ∠DBC = ∠BDC =∠BAC = 45° and

∠ABC = ∠AED = 90° respectively.

Square is a polygon which has 4 sides. All four sides of square are equal length and perpendicular to each other that means the angle between two adjacent side is 90°.

Given that ABCD is a square surface. And diagonal of square creates two isosceles triangles.

So the ∠ABC = ∠BCD = ∠CDA = DAB = 90°

Here, BD and AC are two diagonals of a square ABCD and E is the intersection point of diagonals.

Diagonals cut each other perpendicular.

So, ∠AED = 90°  and ∠EAD = ∠EDA = 45°

Now to find ∠BAC;

we have ∠ABC = 90° so from the property of isosceles triangle

∠BAC = ∠BCA = 45°

In isosceles triangle BCD,

∠BCD = 90° and ∠DBC = ∠BDC = 45°

Therefore, the angles categorized in 45° and 90° are ∠DBC = ∠BDC =∠BAC = 45° and ∠ABC = ∠AED = 90° respectively.

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Answer:

=499,750,000,000

Step-by-step explanation:

2 × 10-12 =500000000000  

4 × 10-9=250000000

500000000000-250000000=499,750,000,000

I hope this helps (:

Answer:

Line C.

Step-by-step explanation:

Negatives are supposed to be on the left side of the 0, not the right side, so we can determine that lines B and D are wrong. On line A, -3/5 is on -2 which is wrong, so line C is the correct answer.

The particular solution that satisfies the differential equation and the initial condition f(0) = a is: f(x) = -sin(x) + C1x + a.

To find the particular solution that satisfies the differential equation f''(x) = sin(x) and an initial condition, we need to integrate the equation twice and apply the initial condition.

1. First Integration:

Integrating the differential equation f''(x) = sin(x) with respect to x once gives us:

f'(x) = -cos(x) + C1

where C1 is the constant of integration.

2. Second Integration:

Integrating f'(x) = -cos(x) + C1 with respect to x again gives us:

f(x) = -sin(x) + C1x + C2

where C2 is another constant of integration.

3. Applying the Initial Condition:

To apply the initial condition, we need to use the given information about the problem. Let's say the initial condition is given as f(0) = a, where 'a' is a specific value.

Substituting x = 0 and f(x) = a into the equation, we get:

a = -sin(0) + C1(0) + C2

a = 0 + 0 + C2

C2 = a

Therefore, the particular solution that satisfies the differential equation and the initial condition f(0) = a is:

f(x) = -sin(x) + C1x + a

In this particular case, the initial condition f(0) = a determines the value of the constant C2, which becomes C2 = a. The resulting particular solution incorporates the constant C1 from the first integration and the constant a from the initial condition.

Note that without a specific initial condition or boundary condition, the constants C1 and C2 remain arbitrary and can be adjusted to fit different situations or additional information if provided.

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Answer:

16.375 or 16 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

16.375 decimal form 16 3/8 fraction form

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps and have a great day!!!!

Based on his score last week and his score this week, we can say that Jacob increased his score by 180%

Jacob scored 25 in his test last week and then this week scored 70.

The increase can be found as:

= (New score - Old score) / Old score x 100%

Solving gives:

= (70 - 25) / 25 x 100%

= 180%

In conclusion, Jacob increased by 180%

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The method of reduction of order is a technique used to find a second solution to a homogeneous linear differential equation when one solution is already known.

However, it cannot be directly used for nonhomogeneous linear differential equations. In nonhomogeneous equations, the method of undetermined coefficients or variation of parameters is typically used to find a particular solution.

Therefore, the statement "the method of reduction of order can also be used for the nonhomogeneous equation" is false. It is important to understand the different techniques for solving differential equations, and to choose the appropriate method based on the type of equation and boundary conditions given.

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Answer:

6. Second choice, 51

7. Second choice, 3

Step-by-step explanation:

6. Multiply 255 with 1/5 = 255/5 = 51 times

7. 1/400 mutiply with 1200 = 1200/400 = 3

Answer:

24 I guess sooooo nsksbsj

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the shape divided has to create another shape and for 1 it's an oval at the beginning and then after the lines of symmetry go through its seen as 8 triangles.

Answer:

142.24 centimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert from inches to centimeters, you multiply the inches value by 2.54 and that will give you its equivalent in centimeters.

56 * 2.54 = 142.24

Please mark brainliest and hope this helped.

Answer:

I will convert 3 yards into inches. 3 yards= 108 inches.  So now I have to divide 108 by 8 which equals 13 R2. The answer is 13 pieces with 2 inches left over

Answer:

183

Step-by-step explanation:

it is clearly a geometric sequence.

the common ratio of multiplication factor is -3.

3 × -3 = -9

-9 × -3 = 27

27 × -3 = -81

-81 × -3 = 243

the sum of these first 5 terms is

3 - 9 + 27 - 81 + 243 = 183

FYI - there is a formula to add the first n terms of a geometric sequence :

Sn = a1(1 - r^n)/(1 - r)

if r < 1 (like in our case -3).

in our case

S5 = 3(1 - (-3)⁵)/(1 - -3) = 3(1 - -243)/4 / 3×244/4 = 3×61 = 183

Answer:

(2xye^x²  -  2xy³) / (5y^4  + 3y²x² - e^x²)

Step-by-step explanation:

differentiate each term:

d/dx (y^5) + d/dx (x² y³) = d/dx (1) + d/dx (ye^x²)

any time y is differentiated, make sure to include dy/dx:

5y^4 dy/dx  +  2xy³ + 3y²x² dy/dx  = 0 + e^x² dy/dx + 2xye^x²

collect terms with dy/dx:

dy/dx (5y^4 + 3y²x² - e^x²)  =  2xye^x² - 2xy³

divide both sides  by  (5y^4 + 3y²x² - e^x²):

dy/dx = (2xye^x²  -  2xy³) / (5y^4  + 3y²x² - e^x²)

(a) The number of cans of spray paint that needs to be purchased is 3.

(b) The cost to paint the wooden prism is $12.00.

To determine the cost of painting the wooden prism, we need to calculate the surface area of the prism and then divide it by the coverage of each can of spray paint.

Let's assume the wooden prism has dimensions of 6 feet by 4 feet by 3 feet.

Part A:

The surface area of the prism can be calculated as follows:

The top and bottom faces have an area of 6 ft x 4 ft = 24 ft² each

The two side faces have an area of 6 ft x 3 ft = 18 ft² each

The front and back faces have an area of 4 ft x 3 ft = 12 ft² each

Therefore, the total surface area of the prism is:

2(24 ft²) + 2(18 ft²) + 2(12 ft²) = 96 ft²

Since each can of spray paint covers 40 ft², we need:

96 ft² ÷ 40 ft²/can = 2.4 cans

We can't purchase a partial can of spray paint, so we need to round up to the nearest whole can.

Therefore, we need to purchase 3 cans of spray paint.

Part B:

The cost of painting the box will be the number of cans required multiplied by the cost per can.

Since we need to purchase 3 cans, the cost will be:

3 cans x $4.00/can = $12.00

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