Solve for the value of k.

Answer:

Graph A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its graph A

Step-by-step explanation:

The next three terms in each geometric sequence is 72, 36, 18, 9, 4.5, 2.25.

The general form of Geometric Progression is: a, ar, ar 2, ar 3, ar 4,…,a n. Where,

a = First term.

r = common ratio.

a n = nth term.

General Term or Nth Term of GP.

Let a be the first term  

And, r be the common ratio for a G.P.

The general form of Geometric Progression is:

GP-series

Where,

a = First term

r = common ratio

arⁿ ⁻¹ = nth term

The next three terms of the GP is :

2.25 + 2.25 = 4.5

4.5 + 4.5 = 9

9 + 9 = 18

18 + 18 = 36

36 + 36 = 72

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Let's begin by listing out the information given to us:

The area of a sector is given by the formula:

We will sustitute the values for central angle & radius into the formula to solve

Answer: 2 5/15 (mixed number) or 35/15 (improper fraction)

Step-by-step explanation:

For these problems, I like to make the mixed number an improper fraction, so 7 1/3 becomes 22/3 and 5 4/5 becomes 29/5. Now, because there denominators are not the same, we can find a LCM or least common multiple to make a common denominator. 15 is the least common denominator so we can turn 22/3 to 110/15 and 29/5 to 145/15. Now we can subtract the numerators. 145-110= 35. So 35/15. It is 2 5/15 as a mixed number. Hope this helps!

The equation for x € R is \(x = (-1 ± √5) / 2 or x = (-1 ± √3) / (2√3).\)

Given equation is

                                 3(2x + 1)4- 16(2x + 1)² - 35 = 0

To solve the given equation for x € R, we will use a substitution method and simplify the expression by considering (2x + 1) as p.

So the given equation becomes \(3p^4 - 16p^2 - 35 = 0\)

Let's factorize the given quadratic equation.

To find the roots of the given equation, we will use the product-sum method.

                \(3p^4 - 16p^2 - 35 = 0\)

              \(3p^4 - 15p^2 - p^2 - 35 = 0\)

 \(3p^2(p^2 - 5) - 1(p^2 - 5) = 0\)

\((p^2 - 5)(3p^2 - 1) = 0 p^2 - 5 = 0\) or \(3p^2 - 1 = 0p^2 = 5 or p² = 1/3\)

Let's solve the equation for p now. p = ±√5 or p = ±1/√3

Let's substitute the value of p in terms of x.p = 2x + 1

Substitute p in the value of x.p = 2x + 1±√5 = 2x + 1   or   ±1/√3 = 2x + 1x = (-1 ± √5) / 2   or   x = (-1 ± √3) / (2√3)

Therefore, the solution of the equation 3(2x + 1)4- 16(2x + 1)² - 35 = 0 for x € R is x = (-1 ± √5) / 2 or x = (-1 ± √3) / (2√3).

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Answer:

r^2+3r-4

Step-by-step explanation:

combine like terms:

2r+r

vvvv

3r+r^2-4

rearrange terms:

r^2+3r-4

Answer:

Whether a net force acts on the object.

Step-by-step explanation:

Newtons first law states that an object will remain at rest unless it is acted upon by an imbalanced force.

Answer:

180°

Step-by-step explanation:

because because that's how much the angle of this triangle is

The sum of the exterior angles is always 360. This applies to any polygon.

note: If you wanted to sum up the interior angles, then the answer would be 180.

Answer:1.2 hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

The absolute value expression for the given statement is  |10|

The absolute value (or modulus) | x | of a real number x is the non-negative value of x without regard to its sign

Marcus was going up stairs in his office. Therefore, he was ascending .

This means the 10 staircase will be added since there is an increase.

Hence, the absolute value expression for the given statement is as follows:

absolute value = |10|

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Answer:

2.2815

Step-by-step explanation:

4563/2000 X 2 and 563/2000

Answer:

2025

27000 x 1/2 = 13500

27000 - 13500 = 13500

13500 x 15% = 2025

Hope this helps!

The importance and advantage of using graph representation when organizing your data are that it makes data presentable, summarizing, better way of comparison of data.

An organized diagram or pictorial representation of the relationship between values or data is referred to as a graph. it is a a diagram that depicts a variable's variation in comparison to that of one or more other variables, such as a series of points, lines, line segments, curves, or areas.

The following are the three advantages of graphs:

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The statement "The height of the probability density function f(x) of the uniform distribution defined on the interval [a, b] is 1/(a-b)" is False.

In a uniform distribution, the probability density function (PDF) is constant within the interval [a, b]. The height of the PDF represents the density of the probability distribution at any given point within the interval. Since the PDF is constant, the height remains the same throughout the interval.

To determine the height of the PDF, we need to consider the interval length. In a uniform distribution defined on the interval [a, b], the height of the PDF is 1/(b - a) for the PDF to integrate to 1 over the entire interval. This means that the total area under the PDF curve is equal to 1, representing the total probability within the interval [a, b].

Therefore, the correct statement is that the height of the probability density function f(x) of the uniform distribution defined on the interval [a, b] is not 1/(a - b), but rather it is a constant value necessary for the PDF to integrate to 1 over the interval, i.e., 1/(b - a).

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Answer:

down below

Step-by-step explanation:

4. 5/11 x 2/2 = 10/22: yes

5. 36/4 = 9 but 2x9 = 18 not 20: no

Answer:

You need to add the expressions. When you do I will edit my answer and give it to you.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Some of the other answers are good examples of solving a system of three equations in three unknowns, which is what this problem is asking. Though the simplest way to solve this problem is actually to notice that, if we sum the three equations, we get:

  X + Y = 10

  X + Z = 20

+  Y + Z = 24

----------------

2X + 2Y + 2Z = 54

Factoring out the 2, we have 2(X + Y + Z) = 54, and dividing both sides by 2 reveals that X + Y + Z = 27.

This won't always work when you're solving three equations in three unknowns, but it's a trick that shows up frequently enough on assignments, standardized tests, etc. that it's worth mentioning.

Answer:

More cows

Step-by-step explanation:

more cows because:

8*1/4=2

12*1/4=3

To calculate the Value-at-Risk (VaR) for this investment at a 99% confidence level, we need to determine the loss amount that will be exceeded with a probability of only 1% (i.e., the worst-case loss that will occur with a 1% chance).

Given that there is a 0.5% chance of a loss of $10 million and a 99.5% chance of a loss of $1 million, we can express this as:

Loss Amount | Probability

$10 million | 0.5%

$1 million | 99.5%

To calculate the VaR, we need to find the loss amount that corresponds to the 1% probability threshold. Since the loss of $10 million has a probability of 0.5%, it is less likely to occur than the 1% threshold. Therefore, we can ignore the $10 million loss in this calculation.

The loss of $1 million has a probability of 99.5%, which is higher than the 1% threshold. This means that there is a 1% chance of the loss exceeding $1 million.

Therefore, the Value-at-Risk (VaR) for this investment at a 99% confidence level is $1 million.

The Value-at-Risk (VaR) for this investment at a 99% confidence level is $1,045,000.

To calculate the Value-at-Risk (VaR) for this investment at a 99% confidence level, we need to determine the loss amount that will be exceeded with only a 1% chance.

Given that the investment has a 0.5% chance of a loss of $10 million and a 99.5% chance of a loss of $1 million, we can calculate the VaR as follows:

VaR = (Probability of Loss of $10 million * Amount of Loss of $10 million) + (Probability of Loss of $1 million * Amount of Loss of $1 million)

VaR = (0.005 * $10,000,000) + (0.995 * $1,000,000)

VaR = $50,000 + $995,000

VaR = $1,045,000

Therefore, the Value-at-Risk (VaR) for this investment at a 99% confidence level is $1,045,000.

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Answer:

x - 12 = 20

Step-by-step explanation:

If I'm wrong do x = 12 - 20

The measurements are paired.

The given study that was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain used the data collected from eight subjects who were asked to rate their pain level before and after a hypnosis session. Therefore, this type of study is paired or dependent samples.

Why? Paired sample design is a design in which the same people are tested more than once, before and after treatment, and the difference in their scores is calculated.

Paired sample design, in which the same people are tested twice, eliminates the problem of individual variability, which is when some people score higher on a measure due to individual differences rather than the treatment being evaluated.

In this case, the same subjects rated their pain level before and after receiving hypnosis therapy. As a result, the experiment can be considered dependent or paired. The pain ratings made before and after the hypnosis sessions are related because the same subjects provide the ratings.

Therefore, the measurements are paired.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

from the sign it's a right angle, so 90°

90 = x - 8 + 6x

90 + 8 = 7x

98 = 7x

x = 98 : 7

x = 14

------------------

check

90 = 14 - 8 + 6 * 14       (remember pemdas)

90 = 14 - 8 + 84

90 = 90

the answer is good

Find angle 1

x - 8

14 - 8 =

6°

Find angle 2

6x

6 * 14 = 84°

--------------------

check

84 + 6 = 90°

the answer is good

Answer:

\(\textsf{a)} \quad \textsf{Equation}: \quad \boxed{x-8+6x=90}\)

\(\begin{aligned}\textsf{b)} \quad m \angle 1 & =\boxed{6^{\circ}}\\ m \angle 2 & =\boxed{84^{\circ}}\end{aligned}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

From inspection of the given diagram, the sum of the two angles is 90° (indicated by the right angle sign):

\(\implies m \angle 1+m \angle 2=90^{\circ}\)

\(\implies (x - 8)^{\circ} + (6x)^{\circ} = 90^{\circ}\)

\(\implies x-8+6x=90\)

\(\textsf{Equation}: \quad \boxed{x-8+6x=90}\)

To find the measure of each angle, solve the equation for x:

\(\implies x-8+6x=90\)

\(\implies x+6x-8=90\)

\(\implies 7x-8=90\)

\(\implies 7x-8+8=90+8\)

\(\implies 7x=98\)

\(\implies \dfrac{7x}{7}=\dfrac{98}{7}\)

\(\implies x=14\)

Substitute the found value of x into the expression for each angle:

\(\implies m \angle 1=(x-8)^{\circ}\)

\(\implies m \angle 1=(14-8)^{\circ}\)

\(\implies m \angle 1=\boxed{6^{\circ}}\)

\(\implies m \angle 2=(6x)^{\circ}\)

\(\implies m \angle 2=(6 \cdot 14)^{\circ}\)

\(\implies m \angle 2=\boxed{84^{\circ}}\)

(a) The class boundaries for the 3rd class can be determined using the class limits provided.

The class limits for the 3rd class are 50 - 59. To find the class boundaries, we add or subtract half of the interval size to the class limits.

Lower Class Boundary: 50 - 0.5 = 49.5

Upper Class Boundary: 59 + 0.5 = 59.5

Therefore, the class boundaries for the 3rd class are 49.5 - 59.5.

(b) To calculate the relative frequency, we need to divide the frequency of the 3rd class by the total number of observations.

Relative Frequency = Frequency of 3rd class / Total number of observations

Relative Frequency = 34 / 100 = 0.34

The cumulative frequency is the sum of the frequencies up to and including the 3rd class.

Cumulative Frequency = Frequency of 1st class + Frequency of 2nd class + Frequency of 3rd class

Cumulative Frequency = 40 + 34 = 74

(c) To calculate the mean, we multiply each class midpoint by its frequency, sum the products, and divide by the total number of observations.

Mean = (Midpoint1 * Frequency1 + Midpoint2 * Frequency2 + ... + MidpointN * FrequencyN) / Total number of observations

Mean = (47.5 * 40 + 54.5 * 34 + 64.5 * 28 + 74.5 * 12 + 84.5 * 11) / 100

Mean ≈ 58.91

To calculate the variance, we need to find the squared deviation of each midpoint from the mean, multiply it by the frequency, sum the products, and divide by the total number of observations.

Variance = [(Midpoint1 - Mean)^2 * Frequency1 + (Midpoint2 - Mean)^2 * Frequency2 + ... + (MidpointN - Mean)^2 * FrequencyN] / Total number of observations

Variance = [(47.5 - 58.91)^2 * 40 + (54.5 - 58.91)^2 * 34 + (64.5 - 58.91)^2 * 28 + (74.5 - 58.91)^2 * 12 + (84.5 - 58.91)^2 * 11] / 100

Variance ≈ 126.71

(c) The coefficient of variation (CV) measures the relative variability of the data and is calculated as the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean, multiplied by 100%.

CV = (Standard Deviation / Mean) * 100%

To find the standard deviation, we take the square root of the variance.

Standard Deviation = √Variance

Standard Deviation ≈ √126.71 ≈ 11.25

CV = (11.25 / 58.91) * 100%

CV ≈ 19.10%

Therefore, the coefficient of variation is approximately 19.10%.

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Answer:

it 2 parts away

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(0,0)  (20, 10)  (40,10)   (60,40)  (100,0)

 A          B           C            D           E

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

150-50-p=75

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

150 − 50 + 75 = p

Step-by-step explanation:

I am too lazy to do the explantion so bye!

Answer:

Mean = 2.33

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

conceded goals : 0 1 2 3 4

Frequency : 2 8 4 10 6

Mean,

\(M=\dfrac{\Sigma fx}{\Sigma f}\\\\M=\dfrac{0\times 2+1\times 8+2\times 4+3\times 10+4\times 6}{2+8+4+10+6}\\\\=\dfrac{70}{30}\\\\M=2.33\)

So, the required mean is 2.33.

A vertical line drawn through a normal distribution at z = –0.75 will separate the distribution into two sections then the proportion in larger section, separated by the vertical line at z = -0.75 is 0.7266.

In a standard normal distribution, the area to the left of a particular z-score represents the proportion of values below that z-score. The area to the right represents the proportion of values above that z-score.

Since the proportion in the smaller section is given as 0.2734, it corresponds to the area to the left of z = -0.75.

To find the proportion in the larger section, we subtract the given proportion from 1 since the total area under the curve is 1.

Proportion in larger section = 1 - 0.2734 = 0.7266

Therefore, the proportion in the larger section, separated by the vertical line at z = -0.75, is 0.7266.

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Performing a change of scale we will see that the actual distance is 4 miles.

We know that the scale is:

3/4 inch = 2 miles.

And the distance that Nicole found on the map is (1 + 1/2) inches.

We can rewrrite the scale as:

1 inch = (4/3)*2 miles

1 inch = (8/3) miles.

Then the actual distance will be:

distance = (1 + 1/2) inches = (1 + 1/2)*(8/3) miles = 4 miles.

The correct option is A.

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The physiological responses that occur in response to low blood levels of calcium are bones release calcium into the blood, the kidneys retain more calcium, intestines absorb more calcium

Calcium is a chemical element which plays an important role in building and maintaining strong bones. It also plays other significant roles in blood clotting, muscles contraction, and normal heart rhythms regulation, and nerve functions. Calcium ions are essential in several cellular processes and the body tightly regulates calcium levels within a narrow physiological range as relatively small changes can have dramatic effects, including heart failure, muscle and brain dysfunction, and even death. Blood calcium levels are regulated by parathyroid hormone (PTH), produced by the parathyroid glands. PTH is released in response to low blood calcium levels and improves calcium levels by targeting the skeleton, the kidneys, and the intestine. The physiological responses that occur in response to low blood levels of calcium are bones release calcium into the blood, the kidneys retain more calcium, intestines absorb more calcium

Note: The question is incomplete as it is missing options which are a) liver releases calcium into the blood. b) bones release calcium into the blood. c) kidneys retain more calcium. d) intestines absorb more calcium.

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Correct Option is. False

When two random variables, X and Y, are independent, the variance of their sum, X+Y, is equal to the sum of their individual variances. In this case, both X and Y have a variance of 20. Therefore, the variance of X+Y would be the sum of 20 and 20, which is 40, not 20.

To understand why this is the case, we can consider the definition of variance. Variance measures how spread out the values of a random variable are from its mean. When two variables are independent, their joint distribution is simply the product of their individual distributions. The variance of the sum of two independent variables is obtained by summing their variances.

In this scenario, each variable has a variance of 20. However, when we add them together, the variances do not add up. Instead, the variance of the sum is the sum of the individual variances, resulting in a variance of 40 for X+Y.

Therefore, the statement "var(X+Y)=20" is false. The correct answer is that the variance of X+Y is 40.

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