Answers
Neurogenic shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the nervous system is unable to regulate blood pressure and heart rate due to damage or dysfunction.
There are several factors that can make a patient more prone to developing neurogenic shock:
Spinal cord injury: The most common cause of neurogenic shock is a spinal cord injury, which can disrupt the nervous system's ability to regulate blood pressure and heart rate.
Head injury: A severe head injury can also cause neurogenic shock by disrupting the nervous system.
Certain medications: Medications that affect the nervous system, such as sedatives or anesthetics, can increase the risk of developing neurogenic shock.
Anaphylaxis: A severe allergic reaction, known as anaphylaxis, can cause neurogenic shock by triggering a sudden drop in blood pressure.
Certain medical conditions: Certain medical conditions, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease, can increase the risk of developing neurogenic shock.
Emotional stress: Extreme emotional stress, such as the shock of a traumatic event, can cause the nervous system to malfunction and lead to neurogenic shock.
Certain surgeries: Surgeries that involve the spinal cord or brain can increase the risk of developing neurogenic shock.
In summary, any factor that inhibits the nervous system's ability to regulate blood pressure and heart rate can cause neurogenic shock, and certain factors such as spinal cord injury, head injury, certain medications, anaphylaxis, certain medical conditions, emotional stress, and certain surgeries can increase the risk of developing this condition.
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Related Questions
Watch the video below
Nursing Simulation Scenario: Medical Error
Write a 500 word response:
What contributed to medication error in this scenario?
Answers
Answer:
What contributed to the medication error was that the nurse did not check the patient's INR before applying the medication.
Explanation:
Medication errors occur when someone in the medical team fails to evaluate a factor and ends up passing a medication that could not be consumed or applied in the presence of that factor. In the case presented in the video, mentioned in the question above, the patient had a very high INR, in this situation the medication known as Coumadin could not be applied, as it could cause abnormal bleeding and it was difficult to control. However, the nurse did not check the level of INR that the patient was presenting before applying the medication.
Which of the following would be a particularly appropriate course for an aspiring certified nursing assistant
(CNA) to complete before beginning his or her new career?
Algebra
Latin
World geography
Nutrition
Save and Exit
Answers
Answer:
nutrition
Explanation:
caffeine and cocaine are both considered to be stimulant drugs True or False
Answers
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
True, caffeine and cocaine are both considered to be stimulant drugs.
Hope this helps!
Place the ear structures in the correct order, as sound travels into the ear.
Auricle
Hammer (Malleus)
Hair Cells
Stapes
Cochlea
Basilar Membrane
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Auditory Canal
Incus (Anvil)
Tympanic Membrane
Cochlear Nerve
Complete test
Answers
The correct order of how sound travels through ear is auricle, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus , stapes, cochlea , basilar membrane, hair cells, vestibulocochlear nerve
HearingThe auditory canal, followed by the eardrum, is where sound waves enter the ear first through the pinna. As a result, the mallus, incus, and stapes begin to violently vibrate. These vibrations are then transmitted through the tympanic membrane. After that, the impact on the oval window causes the fluid in the cochlea to shift, sending an impulse to the auditory nerve, which then travels to the brain.The malleus, incus, and stapes, which are known in Latin as "the hammer, anvil, and stirrup," are the ossicles, which are located in that sequence from the eardrum to the inner ear (from superficial to deep).For more information on anatomy of ear kindly visit to
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Which action would the nurse take for a client who is a psychologist and has questioned the authority of the treatment team and advised other clients that their treatment plans are wrong
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As the client, a psychologist has questioned the authority of the treatment team and advised other clients that their treatment plans are wrong, it becomes imperative for the nurse to intervene and handle the situation. In this case, the nurse must follow the code of ethics and take the necessary action to safeguard the client's interests. The nurse should approach the psychologist and discuss the issue with them privately.The nurse should try to gain the client's trust and help them understand the importance of following the treatment plan.
The nurse should also encourage the psychologist to ask questions and express their concerns during their appointments with the treatment team.The nurse should provide the psychologist with clear explanations of their treatment plans and help them understand the importance of each aspect of the plan. The nurse should also encourage the psychologist to ask questions and express their concerns during their appointments with the treatment team. It is essential to ensure that the client's rights are respected and that the treatment team delivers the best care possible to meet the client's needs.Answer:In the event of a client, a psychologist questioning the authority of the treatment team and advising other clients that their treatment plans are wrong, the nurse should follow the code of ethics and take the necessary action to safeguard the client's interests. The nurse should approach the psychologist privately and discuss the issue with them. The nurse should try to gain the client's trust and help them understand the importance of following the treatment plan.
The nurse should also encourage the psychologist to ask questions and express their concerns during their appointments with the treatment team. The nurse should provide the psychologist with clear explanations of their treatment plans and help them understand the importance of each aspect of the plan. It is essential to ensure that the client's rights are respected, and the treatment team delivers the best care possible to meet the client's needs. The above actions taken by the nurse will help the client gain trust in the treatment team and ultimately improve the chances of successful treatment.
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The nurse would need to take appropriate action to address the behavior of the psychologist client by Documentation, Communication, Collaboration, Professional Boundaries and Referral.
Documentation: The nurse should document the incidents of the psychologist questioning the authority of the treatment team and providing conflicting advice to other clients. Accurate and detailed documentation will serve as evidence of the client's behavior.
Communication: The nurse should initiate a conversation with the psychologist client to discuss their actions and the potential impact on the treatment team and other clients. Open and non-confrontational communication is essential to gain a better understanding of the client's perspective.
Collaboration: If possible, the nurse can involve the treatment team, including the psychologist's colleagues, in a collaborative discussion to address the concerns and ensure a unified approach to treatment. This can help foster a supportive and cohesive working environment.
Professional Boundaries: The nurse should emphasize the importance of maintaining professional boundaries and respecting the expertise and decisions of the treatment team. Reinforcing ethical guidelines and professional standards can help the psychologist understand the potential consequences of their actions.
Referral: If the behavior persists and significantly affects the therapeutic environment, it may be necessary to refer the psychologist client to a higher authority or supervisor within the organization. This step ensures that appropriate measures are taken to address the situation.
It is important for the nurse to approach the situation with empathy, professionalism, and a focus on maintaining a therapeutic environment for all clients involved.
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A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer’s (LR) 1000mL IV to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
Answers
Answer:
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. ... Extraneous exercise can be harmful to the function of a pacemaker.
Nurse should adjust manual IV infusion to deliver 32gtt/min.
What is infusion?Infusion therapy in medicine is the administration of drugs directly by needle into non-physiological access routes created momentarily, such as intravenous (direct into a vein) and subcutaneous (in the tissue below the skin).
With this information, we can conclude that Nurse should adjust manual IV infusion to deliver 32gtt/min.
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A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and a prescription for oral betamethasone.. Which of the following statements should the nurse make about how to take this medication?
A. "Take the medication between meals."
B. "Take the medication with orange juice."
C. "Take the medication with milk."
D. "Take the medication on an empty stomach."
Answers
Answer:
C. "Take the medication with milk."
Explanation:
Oral steroids should be taken with food or milk to avoid stomach irritation.
FALSE A. "Take the medication between meals."
FALSE B. "Take the medication with orange juice."
FALSE D. "Take the medication on an empty stomach."
Answer:
C-Take the medication with milk.
Explanation:
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Answers
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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Kyle has sustained a severe knee injury during football practice and is told that he has torn ligaments and cartilage in his knee. Can he expect a quick, uneventful recovery? (Be Very Specific In Your Explanation & Rationale)
Answers
The nurse is teaching a client about the potential for allergic drug reaction. What statement made by a client suggests a need for further teaching?
a. "All drugs have the potential to cause an allergic reaction."
b. "The additives that are in drugs can also cause allergic reactions."
c. "Virtually any drug may induce an immunologic response in a susceptible person."
d. "If you didn't have allergies as a child, you won't develop allergies later in life."
Answers
The statement made by a client that suggests a need for further teaching is Option D. "If you didn't have allergies as a child, you won't develop allergies later in life."
This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the development of allergies and implies a need for further teaching. Allergic reactions can occur at any age, regardless of whether or not a person had allergies as a child. Allergies can develop over time, and even if a person had not previously experienced an allergic reaction, they can still be at risk of having one in the future. It is important for the nurse to emphasize that anyone can experience an allergic reaction to a drug, regardless of their medical history or age.
The nurse should educate the client on the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction and encourage them to seek medical attention immediately if they experience any adverse effects after taking a medication. Additionally, the nurse should educate the client on the importance of informing healthcare providers of any allergies or previous adverse reactions to medications. This information can help prevent future allergic reactions and ensure that the client receives appropriate medical treatment if an allergic reaction occurs.
In summary, it is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information and clear education on the potential for allergic reactions to drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of the client. Therefore, Option D is Correct.
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1. given that ventilation–perfusion is gravity dependent, how does your body position affect where the greatest volume of ventilation–perfusion occurs?
Answers
Ventilation–perfusion is gravity dependent, so your body position can impact where the greatest volume of ventilation–perfusion occurs. When an individual is standing up, the lung's blood vessels in the lower areas of the lungs receive more blood.
As a result, a greater volume of ventilation-perfusion takes place in the lower sections of the lungs because of the higher blood supply. Ventilation is the process of moving air into and out of the lungs.
Perfusion is the process of providing blood to the body's tissues. Ventilation-perfusion refers to the balance between these two processes in the lungs. It's essential to ensure that the blood is oxygenated and that carbon dioxide is removed.
When we inhale, air enters the body and oxygen passes through the lungs' alveoli into the bloodstream. The blood then transports oxygen to the body's tissues and removes carbon dioxide. The amount of blood flowing to each area of the lungs can change depending on body position. This can impact ventilation-perfusion.
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Explain how relaxing and/or laughing helps to reduce stress.
Answers
Nursing-maintaining a professional distance
Answers
Recall reasons for maintaining a medical chart and what may comprise the medical chart.
Answers
which of the following best describes a flail segment?
Answers
A flail segment is best described as a piece of machinery used to harvest cereals, crops, and hay.
The device has two chains of interlocking bars that break the plant stalks and thresh the grain or seed out of the husks. The grain or seed is then collected and sorted for further processing or consumption. Flail machines are ideal for various crop types and densities.
They are commonly used for producing high-quality straw for use in animal bedding, composting, and biomass fuel production. They are also used for harvesting beans, peas, and other legumes.Flail segments are used in various types of farming activities. They are particularly important in harvesting cereals and hay crops. The flail is attached to a tractor, and the crop is fed through the flail.
The flail rotates and breaks the crop down into small pieces. These small pieces can then be easily collected and stored until needed. Flail segments are essential for modern farming practices. They increase efficiency, reduce costs, and improve overall productivity. They are also safer and more environmentally friendly than traditional methods of harvesting crops.
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A client with a serious Escherichia coli infection is being treated with gentamicin. When monitoring for potential adverse effects, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?
a. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
b. Skin integrity
c. AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels
d. Sodium, potassium, and chloride levels
Answers
Answer:
a. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
Explanation:
Gentamicin can cause renal toxicity and failure. BUN and creatinine levels are to monitor kidney function.
A client with a serious Escherichia coli infection is being treated with gentamicin. When monitoring for potential adverse effects, the nurse should prioritize Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. The correct answer is option a.
Gentamicin is an antibiotic that is used to treat serious bacterial infections, such as those caused by Escherichia coli. However, gentamicin can have potential adverse effects on the kidneys, which is why it is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. These are two important indicators of kidney function, and if they become elevated, it could indicate that the client is experiencing kidney damage as a result of the gentamicin treatment. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's BUN and creatinine levels when assessing for potential adverse effects of gentamicin.
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the nurse is preparing to assess a patient’s peripheral nervous sensory function. which assessment test would the nurse use?
Answers
Vibrational sensation and joint position sense are other ways to evaluate light touch. The two-point discrimination test assesses the sensory capacity of the cortex.
Assesing the balance is Romberg. The Rinne hearing test is used as a screening tool. The monofilament/light touch test is a threshold assay designed to establish the minimal stimulation that a participant is capable of perceiving. The two-point discrimination test is a practical test that evaluates the level of tactile sensitivity.
To determine whether you have balance issues, a simple physical test called a Romberg test is performed. This test measures how well your body can detect your movements and position.
The Rinnes test is mostly used to assess hearing loss in one ear. It contrasts how sounds perceived through bone conduction through the mastoid and those perceived through air conduction are perceived.
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i got the orbulon voice changer and it kinda blows but the kitten liked it and got upset about the balloons and stars flying away and dug at the 3ds and bit on the volume slider
Answers
Answer:
nice
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Well, just pull the cat away. A+
the adult client is experiencing a midlife crisis. which factor would attribute to this condition? hesi eaq
Answers
The adult client is experiencing a midlife crisis and the factor which would attribute to this condition is that the client is examining life goals and relationships.
A midlife crisis is a transition of identity and authority that may occur in old people, generally forty to sixty years recent. Example- Feeling stuck during a rut or hopeless concerning your choices for the longer term. Displaying dramatic changes in mood, like irritability or anger. participating in erratic or impulsive decision-making, like getting high-ticket things sort of a new automotive.
You can take four steps to beat your midlife crisis: talking somebody you trust, reframing your scenario, effecting a life audit, and setting new goals. If you are managing somebody who's showing these signs, try and strike the proper balance between being sympathetic and addressing any negative behavior directly.
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1. What is the major source of energy for the brain?
2. What are the four major divisions of the brain?
3. What is the role of the corpus callosum?
4. In what cerebral lobe is the precentral gyrus? The postcentral
Nervous System: Spinal Cord & Peripher
Go Figure
Instruction: Answer the questions below.
1. Which of the following is correct according to Fig. 11.1 below
Subarachnoid space
Endal
Answers
Answer:
1) glucose
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood.
2) Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They Control
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...Temporal lobe.
3) The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres. ... Other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
4) The frontal lobe
The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood. Other part is discussed below:
What is brain hemisphere?Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
The frontal lobe The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
Therefore, The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand.
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Research indicates that total time spent in REM sleep is especially high in
Answers
Research indicates that total time spent in REM sleep is especially high in Infants.
absolute contraindications to estrogen therapy
a. a. hx of any type of cancer
b. clotting disorders
c. hx of tension headaches
d. orthostatic hypotension
Answers
Explanation:
A. HX of any type of cancer
PLEASE HELP!!
Submit your neatly typed or written speech of at least 500 words, as well as the visual information that goes with your presentation. Remember, your speech must be structured like an essay, including an introduction with a strong thesis (this is your argument), a body, and a conclusion.
Make sure your speech addresses your audience's concerns, and includes the background information on vaccines.
Answers
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Sally Baggett holds a master’s in literature. She enjoys inspiring students, cooking with her family, and helping others achieve their dreams.
Sally Baggett holds a master’s in literature. She enjoys inspiring students, cooking with her family, and helping others achieve their dreams.Just like there is more than one way to skin a cat (or so they say), there is more than one way to write an essay. One is not required to produce a perfectly formatted five-paragraph essay every time one composes a piece of writing. There is another type of essay you can write that may just be simpler than the traditional style: the three-paragraph essay. This type of essay might be beneficial for beginning writers as it offers the organizational structure of a longer essay without requiring the length. It also offers a challenge to more advanced writers to condense their points.
Sally Baggett holds a master’s in literature. She enjoys inspiring students, cooking with her family, and helping others achieve their dreams.Just like there is more than one way to skin a cat (or so they say), there is more than one way to write an essay. One is not required to produce a perfectly formatted five-paragraph essay every time one composes a piece of writing. There is another type of essay you can write that may just be simpler than the traditional style: the three-paragraph essay. This type of essay might be beneficial for beginning writers as it offers the organizational structure of a longer essay without requiring the length. It also offers a challenge to more advanced writers to condense their points.The Parts of the Essay and Its Benefits
Sally Baggett holds a master’s in literature. She enjoys inspiring students, cooking with her family, and helping others achieve their dreams.Just like there is more than one way to skin a cat (or so they say), there is more than one way to write an essay. One is not required to produce a perfectly formatted five-paragraph essay every time one composes a piece of writing. There is another type of essay you can write that may just be simpler than the traditional style: the three-paragraph essay. This type of essay might be beneficial for beginning writers as it offers the organizational structure of a longer essay without requiring the length. It also offers a challenge to more advanced writers to condense their points.The Parts of the Essay and Its BenefitsAs with most essays, the three-paragraph essay has three parts: an introduction, a body, and a conclusion. Yet with this type of essay–unlike its five-paragraph counterpart–each one of these sections has only one paragraph. The three-paragraph essay, therefore, might be ideal for young writers or those who are currently mastering the English language.
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a client is found to have leukoplakia, and the nurse is teaching the client about measures to reduce the client's risk. which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching?
Answers
Leukoplakia is a condition in which white or gray patches appear on the tongue, gums, or inside the cheeks. It is commonly caused by smoking or other tobacco use, and it may indicate a precancerous condition. To reduce the risk of developing oral cancer, the nurse would include several measures in the teaching.
Firstly, the nurse should advise the client to quit smoking or using tobacco products. This is the most important step to prevent the progression of leukoplakia to cancer. Secondly, the nurse should encourage the client to maintain good oral hygiene by brushing and flossing regularly. Additionally, the client should avoid consuming alcohol, as this can increase the risk of oral cancer. The nurse should also recommend regular dental check-ups to monitor the condition of the leukoplakia and to detect any signs of cancer early. Finally, the nurse should provide the client with information about a healthy diet and lifestyle, as these factors can also affect the risk of developing oral cancer.
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during the past two weeks, jennifer has has noticed that her coworker, maryn, has been making some charting errors. jennifer is very concerned about patient car and does not want any of the patients to suffer because of these errors. who should Jennifer talk with about her concerns?
Answers
The person Jennifer should talk with about her coworker, Maryn, who has been making some charting errors for the past two weeks is her supervisor or Maryn herself.
This is because if she talks with Maryn who has been making the charting errors, she can determine what is causing the errors and how best to fix them.
However, since this is a delicate matter and involves patient health, she should talk to her supervisor about it,.
What is Health Care?This refers to the treatment and medication given to patients by medical professionals to nurse them to full recovery.
Hence, we can see that The person Jennifer should talk with about her coworker, Maryn, who has been making some charting errors for the past two weeks is her supervisor or Maryn herself.
This is because if she talks with Maryn who has been making the charting errors, she can determine what is causing the errors and how best to fix them.
However, since this is a delicate matter and involves patient health, she should talk to her supervisor about it,.
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If the alveolar crest of bone is located 2 mm apical to cej of teeth, this would indicate?
Answers
If the alveolar crest of bone is located 2 mm apical to CEJ of teeth, this would indicate health.
What is alveolar crest of bone? The most cervical rim in the actual alveolar bone is the alveolar crest. The alveolar crest is 1.5–2 mm apical to the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) when it is healthy. When the jaw is healthy, the alveolar crests of the adjacent teeth are also uniform in height.Alveolar bone contains blood arteries and nerves that pierce the cribriform plate. The periodontal ligament is primarily supplied by these blood vessels and nerves. Through each tooth's alveoli, the alveolar bone serves as a home for and support for the teeth. through periodontal fibers, supports teeth.Learn more about CEJ here:
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a client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops an infection with anorexia
Answers
A client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops an infection with anorexia. Take the oral medication, drink fluids, and monitor capillary glucose levels.
What is anorexia ?A fixation with food and weight caused by an eating disorder. Anorexia is characterized by distorted body image and an unrealistic fear of being overweight.
Examples of symptoms include starving oneself or engaging in strenuous exercise in an effort to maintain a weight below average.
To get back to normal weight, you might need medical treatment. Talk therapy can help with behavior improvement and self-esteem. a great dislike of putting on weight.
Common signs and symptoms of anorexia :To Manage Weight, Purge
A preoccupation with food, diets, and calories.
Changes in emotion and mood.
Body deformation
Excessive exercise
Denying hunger and refusing to eat.
The eating of ritual food.
Alcohol or drug abuse
Emotional and mental signs of anorexia :Not being able to recognize the size and shape of your body (having a distorted self-image). a severe obsession with diets, calories, and food. even though you are underweight, you feel "fat" or overweight.
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The frontal lobe is the last part of the brain to develop; this typically occurs when an individual is 20 years old or older. How might this fact affect the actions and behaviors of those not yet in their 20s?
Answers
The frontal lobe is the last part of the brain to develop and this makes individuals that aren't in their 20's have impulsive behaviors.
The frontal lobes can be found directly behind an individual's forehead. They're the largest lobes that can be found in the human brain. The frontal lobe is responsible for impulse control, social interaction, problem-solving, etc. It helps in controlling one's ability to control their emotions or solve issues.It should be noted that the frontal lobe is the last part of the brain to develop. It usually develops when an individual is in their 20s. In this case, people who are below 20 years, usually act quickly without thinking about the results of their actions.
In conclusion, as one matures and the frontal lobe develops, we learn to control our emotions and actions better.
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Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
Answers
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
what is one quality of a balanced budget
Answers
Answer:
You have less dept i think I just read it