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Loratadine makes less soothing impacts Loratadine (Claritin) doesn't influence the focal sensory system and thusly is nonsedating.
There is inadequate proof to show that loratadine (Claritin) can cause dysrhythmias, can go about as a bronchodilator, or cause gastrointestinal surprise than other similar prescriptions.
Loratadine is viewed as a nonsedating allergy medicine. At suggested portions (10 mg/d), no massive contrasts among loratadine and fake treatment for any proportion of mental or psychomotor execution, state of mind, or sedation were observed.5, 6 conversely, other execution concentrates on that utilized higher dosages of loratadine (20 and 40 mg) showed huge execution hindrance and sedation in certain tests (e.g., decision response time, versatile following, digit-image replacement) in examination with placebo. considering the proof exhibiting its security, the consideration of loratadine in the rundown of possibly improper meds exclusively based on the investigations that the 2012 modified Brews models reference isn't legitimate. Those three examinations, which the American Geriatrics Society cited,8-10 give no proof of loratadine being an allergy med with solid anticholinergic properties.
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Related Questions
__________ supported the claim that diagnosis of mental illnesses is often influenced by context and subjective evaluations.
Answers
Answer: David Rosenhan study
Explanation:
David Rosenhan conducted a study which supported the claim by diagnosing the mental illnesses. This diagnoses is supported by subjective evaluations. He conducted the experiment to judge whether the psychiatric disorders are reliable and valid to help mentally ill patients. The experimenters were provided with hallucinogens and then provided with antipsychotic drugs when were admitted to psychiatric hospital.
Answer:
b on edge
_____________________________
Your team is caring for a term newborn whose heart rate is 50 bpm after receiving effective ventilation, chest compressions, and intravenous epinephrine administration. There is a history of acute blood loss around the time of delivery. You administer 10 mL/kg of normal saline (based on the newborn’s estimated weight). At what rate should this be administered
Answers
The gasping respiration, and positive pressure ventilation via face cover should be started with 21 percent oxygen or blended oxygen using a self-inflating bag, flow-inflating bag.
What should you do if the neonate's heart rate falls below 60 beats per minute?If the heart rate drops 60 bpm despite good oxygenation and ventilation, start chest contractions.
If the heart stays drops 60 bpm after 30-45 seconds of cogent chest squeezes, epinephrine 10 mcg/kg should be nursed intravenously.
Thus, positive pressure ventilation via face cover should be initiated with 21 percent oxygen.
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David, a CMA (AAMA), obtains Mr. Washington’s vital signs after he has escorted him to the examination room. David notes Mr. Washington’s vital signs as follows: Wt: 235 lbs, T: 97.6°F, P: 94 bpm, rapid and bounding, BP: 148/92. What can you ascertain from these findings? Mr. Washington is an African American. How does this impact his health status relating to cardiovascular system disorders? What might Dr. Miller suggest to help Mr. Washington take control of his blood pressure?
Answers
According to the BP values that Mr. Washington presents, we can say that he is showing hypertension.
Accordingly, we can answer the questions shown above, as follows:
BP is the acronym for blood pressure and is considered normal when it presents values lower than 140/90 mmHg. Mr. Washington is showing 148/92 mmHg of blood pressure, which shows that he is hypertensive, that is, he is showing blood pressure above normalAfrican American people like Mr. Washington are more likely to develop hypertension because they are more sensitive to sodium and can accumulate this element in the body more intensely than white people.To help Mr. Washington control blood pressure, the doctor should recommend physical exercise, increased water intake, and a diet free of sodium and fat.More information:
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Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
Answers
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
Classification of acute leukemia in the United States relies on two main systems, the FAB (French American British) and the WHO (World Health Organization) classifications. In order to diagnose acute leukemia, the FAB system requires ______% of non-erythroid blasts to be present in the bone marrow/peripheral blood, while the WHO system requires the presence of ________% non-erythroid blasts.
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1)What happens if you mix ammonia free Windex with bleach? Will is still create toxic fumes? 10pts
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Ordered: Dobutamine (Dobutrex) 4 mcg/kg/min. The solution available is 500 mg in 250 mL D5W. The client weighs 82 kg. At what rate (mL per hour) will the nurse set the pump?
Round to the nearest tenth.
Answers
The pump rate for a dobutamine infusion when available solution is 500mg in 250ml D5W. and weight of client is 82 kg:
To determine the rate (mL per hour) to set the pump, follow these steps:
1. Calculate the total mcg/min of dobutamine required for the patient: 4 mcg/kg/min * 82 kg = 328 mcg/min.
2. Convert the available solution from mg to mcg: 500 mg * 1000 mcg/mg = 500,000 mcg.
3. Determine the concentration of dobutamine in mcg/mL: 500,000 mcg / 250 mL = 2000 mcg/mL.
4. Calculate the rate in mL/min: 328 mcg/min / 2000 mcg/mL = 0.164 mL/min.
5. Convert the rate to mL/hour: 0.164 mL/min * 60 min/hour = 9.84 mL/hour.
Your answer: The nurse will set the pump at a rate of 9.8 mL per hour, rounding to the nearest tenth.
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Which word is best described as protection and support of another’s rights?
Answers
hope this helps
Advocacy.
To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in _____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
Answers
To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in at least 11 of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
The specific tender points designated by the American College of Rheumatology (ACR) criteria. The ACR criteria for fibromyalgia diagnosis includes a combination of widespread pain and tenderness. The 18 tender points are specific anatomical sites where tenderness is assessed by applying a standardized pressure.
These tender points are distributed symmetrically across the body, including areas such as the neck, shoulders, chest, elbows, hips, and knees. During the diagnostic process, a healthcare professional will examine these tender points and determine if tenderness is present upon palpation.
The requirement of tenderness in at least 11 of the 18 points is based on research and clinical observations indicating that individuals with fibromyalgia commonly exhibit increased tenderness and pain sensitivity in these specific areas.
It's important to note that fibromyalgia diagnosis involves more than just tender points. Other symptoms such as widespread pain, fatigue, sleep disturbances, and cognitive difficulties are also considered. A comprehensive evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine if fibromyalgia is the appropriate diagnosis.
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Which organ performs the given function? The roof of the mouth separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. The is flexible and closes off the nasal cavity when you swallow.
Answers
The soft palate is composed of muscle and connective tissue, which give it both mobility and support. This palate is very flexible. When elevated for swallowing and sucking, it completely blocks and separates the nasal cavity and nasal portion of the pharynx from the mouth and the oral part of the pharynx.
What would be the appropriate dose of azithromycin (immediate release) administered iv for a baby weighing 17 ponds?
Answers
The appropriate dose of azithromycin (immediate release) administered IV for a baby weighing 17 pounds would be 10 mg/kg/dose (Max: 500 mg/dose) IV once daily until symptoms abate.
What is azithromycin used for?
Infections of the lungs, sinuses, skin, throat, reproductive organs, bronchitis, pneumonia, STDs, and other bacterial infections are all treated with azithromycin. A kind of lung infection that frequently affects patients with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection is treated or prevented using azithromycin. As a macrolide antibiotic, azithromycin belongs to a group of these drugs. Bacterial growth is halted by azithromycin, and this is how it functions.
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Knowing how to do something is important but behaving professionally while practicing is essential.""
What does this sentence mean to you as it relates to your future career choices? Below are the two types of skills you are going to acquire in your studies and training as Medical assistants.
Answers
Acquiring technical skills and practicing professionalism are essential for success as a medical assistant.
What are the key technical skills that medical assistants need to acquire in their studies and training?I don't have personal experiences or future career choices. However, I can interpret the meaning of the sentence you provided.
The sentence suggests that having knowledge and skills related to a particular profession is important, but equally essential is displaying professionalism while applying those skills.
In the context of future career choices in the field of Medical Assisting, the two types of skills mentioned could be:
Technical Skills: These skills refer to the specific abilities and knowledge related to medical procedures, patient care, administrative tasks, medical terminology, and other technical aspects of the profession.
Professionalism Skills: These skills encompass behaviors, attitudes, and qualities that reflect a high level of professionalism in the workplace. This may include ethical conduct, effective communication, teamwork, adaptability, punctuality, empathy, maintaining patient confidentiality, and adhering to professional standards and guidelines.
The sentence emphasizes that both acquiring the necessary technical skills and embodying professionalism are crucial for success in a career as a medical assistant.
It suggests that while competence is important, how one behaves professionally and interacts with others is equally vital in providing quality healthcare and maintaining a positive work environment.
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what percentage of abortions are medically necessary
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According to the World Health Organization (WHO), it is estimated that approximately 8–9% of abortions worldwide are performed for medical reasons, such as to save the life of the pregnant woman, to prevent harm to her health, or due to fetal anomalies incompatible with life.
It is difficult to provide an exact percentage of abortions that are medically necessary as it can vary depending on various factors such as geographic location, access to healthcare, and individual medical circumstances. Medically necessary abortions are those that are performed to protect the life or health of the pregnant person or in cases of severe fetal abnormality.
It is important to note that while some countries have laws that allow for medically necessary abortions, other countries may restrict access to abortion services even in cases where it is medically necessary. Overall, the proportion of medically necessary abortions is relatively small compared to the total number of abortions performed worldwide.
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Single-celled organisms need the following to survive
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Lucera rushed through a training video about the new patient monitoring system at her hospital. As a result, she
does not know how to use the system competently. What type of general standard has Lucera most violated?
O communication standards
O team-related standards
O values-related standard
O performance standard
Answers
Answer:
performance standard
Explanation:
In this scenario Lucera mostly violated the performance standard. That is because by not paying close attention to the training video she does not know how to properly operate the needed equipment and therefore cannot meet the performance standard that has been established by the health department in the hospital. Failure to meet these standards is a serious issue as errors can lead to injuries or even death of a client in such scenarios.
Answer:
Performance Standard
Explanation:
It is D because if she rushed through it then she would be performing poorly.
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What instructions should the nurse provide a client preparing for on ankbo-brachial index assossment? No smothing for a faxst 1 hour proor Mrs be Neo tom mienigat pract Report high glacose kevis to be hurse
Answers
The instructions that the nurse should provide to a client preparing for an ankle-brachial index (ABI) assessment is provided in the below section.
No smoking for at least 1 hour prior: Smoking can temporarily constrict blood vessels and affect the accuracy of the ABI measurement. It is important to refrain from smoking for at least 1 hour before the assessment.
Avoid caffeine and heavy meals: Consuming caffeine or heavy meals can also affect blood flow and potentially impact the ABI results. It is recommended to avoid these substances prior to the assessment.
Wear comfortable clothing: The client should wear loose-fitting and comfortable clothing, preferably with easy access to the ankles and arms. This will allow the healthcare professional to easily place the blood pressure cuffs and obtain accurate measurements.
Report high glucose levels: If the client has diabetes or high glucose levels, it is important to inform the nurse or healthcare professional conducting the ABI assessment. Elevated glucose levels can affect peripheral circulation and may influence the results.
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23. Discuss how Erikson's theory of psychosocial developmental relates to communicating with patients.
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Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is based on the idea that people go through eight stages of development throughout their lives.
What is Erikson's theory of psychosocial development?Each stage is characterized by a unique psychological crisis or challenge that must be resolved in order to develop a healthy sense of self and social relationships. This theory has important implications for healthcare professionals, particularly in how they communicate with patients.
One of the key aspects of Erikson's theory is that each stage of development is defined by a specific psychosocial crisis that requires resolution.
For example, during the adolescent stage of development, the crisis is identity versus role confusion, where the individual is trying to establish a sense of self and personal identity. Healthcare professionals who are aware of this stage can communicate with adolescent patients in ways that help them feel heard and respected as they navigate this challenging time in their lives.
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You must always test blood sugar 2-4 hours after a meal ?
Answers
Answer:
true......
hope it helps
The timing for testing blood sugar levels can vary depending on individual circumstances and healthcare provider recommendations. The statement is false.
While testing 2-4 hours after a meal can be useful in some cases, it is not a universal rule.
The timing of blood sugar testing may be different for different individuals, depending on factors such as the type of diabetes, medication regimen, and individual blood sugar patterns.
Blood sugar testing and its variability based on individual circumstances:
1. Type of Diabetes: Individuals with Type 1 diabetes, who do not produce insulin, often need to monitor their blood sugar levels more frequently, including before meals, after meals, before bedtime, and during physical activity. On the other hand, individuals with Type 2 diabetes may have more flexibility in their testing schedule, depending on the severity of their condition and the medications they are taking.
2. Medication Regimen: The type of diabetes medications a person is taking can also influence the timing of blood sugar testing. For example, individuals using insulin may need to test their blood sugar levels more frequently to ensure proper insulin dosing and to prevent hypoglycemia.
3. Gestational Diabetes: Pregnant women with gestational diabetes may have different testing schedules based on their meal timings.
Thus, the given statement is false.
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Complete question:
You must always test your blood sugar 2-4 hours after a meal. True or False
the two pelvic bones join to form the amphiarthrodial joint referred to as the symphysis pubis.
Answers
The statement "The two pelvic bones join to form the amphiarthrodial joint referred to as the symphysis pubis" is correct.
The pelvis is a bony structure that consists of two hip bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx. The hip bones, also known as the innominate bones or pelvic bones, join together at the midline to form a cartilaginous joint called the pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis. The symphysis pubis is an amphiarthrodial joint, which means that it allows for limited movement and is stabilized by fibrocartilage and ligaments. The joint is located in the front of the pelvis and helps to support the weight of the upper body, distribute forces during weight-bearing activities, and provide attachment sites for muscles and ligaments. Dysfunction of the symphysis pubis can result in pain, instability, and difficulty with activities such as walking, standing, and sitting.
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why is it important for jessica to have her blood levels of the antiepileptic medications checked on a regular basis
Answers
Answer:Blood tests are often checked before starting an antiepileptic drug (AED). Blood tests may be done again after you have been taking the seizure medicine for a while, especially if there’s been a change in dose or if you have a change in how you feel.How often blood tests are done depends on each seizure medicine, the need for monitoring, and other health problems you have or medicines you take. The frequency of testing also varies from doctor to doctor and even country to country.
The frequency of blood tests to check for side effects depends on the medicine you take. Many of the older seizure medicines need more monitoring than the newer ones.
Blood tests may be done before starting a drug then periodically once you are on the medicine. Some medicines may need blood tests every few weeks or months when starting the medicine. After a person is used to the medicine, these blood tests may be needed only once in a while or if problems develop. Other medicines, especially some of the newer ones, need blood test monitoring much less often if at all.
Blood tests to measure the amount of medicine in your system can also vary. Again, blood levels of the older medicines are done more often to help guide changes in doses. Well-established ranges for blood levels are available for the older drugs, but not as much for newer seizures medicines. For some of the newer seizure medicines, tests for blood levels may not be available or helpful in adjusting doses of a medicine.
Explanation:Blood tests may be done to check how much medicine is in your body, usually called drug or AED levels. (AED stands for antiepileptic drugs)
Blood tests may also be used to see how your body is tolerating the medicine. The types of blood test will vary depending on what possible side effects may be seen with your seizure medicine. These blood tests may include levels of electrolytes (substances in the body such as sodium and potassium), kidneys and liver function, and blood cell counts (such as white blood cells, red blood cells, platelet counts).The best way to tell if a medicine is working is to talk to you and your family. How often seizures occur and if you have any side effects that bother you is often more important than a blood test. This information comes from you and your family, not a test.
The blood level helps the doctor judge if the medicine dose is high enough, too high, or if it may be time for a change. It’s a piece of information that is looked at together with how you feel. The doctor or nurse will also want to do a ‘neuro exam’ that can help pick up side effects of medicines. So remember:
The blood level is only a guide. Some people will do well at low levels of medicine. Other people may need higher amounts.
Results of a blood level need to be looked together with other information.
There are many complaints that nutrition education is focused on what not to eat instead of what to eat. How does this confuse consumers?
Answers
The trachea, the bronchial tree, and the lungs are part of which tract?
Answers
Answer:
They are part of
Explanation:
respiratory system
hope it helps
Adrian Thompson is a 19-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Andrian, apart from occasional sinus infections, Andrian is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Adrian's current proble
Answers
Differentiating between life-threatening diseases, or not, is a critical point in the decision-making of the emergency physician to decide on the release or admission of the patient to the hospital and to start treatment, immediately.
Chest painThe classic description of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is pain or discomfort or burning or oppressive sensation located in the precordial or retrosternal region, which may radiate to the shoulder and/or left arm, right arm, neck or jaw, accompanied by often from
DiaphoresisNauseaVomiting or Dyspnea.With this information, we can conclude that this acute chest pain may be related to a coronary problem and needs to be investigated.
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Mr. Jones is a healthy, active 82-year-old man. He exercises regularly and enjoys a variety of foods. Recently he has started gaining weight. He says he eats exactly the same amount of food he ate when he was 30 years younger. How would you explain to Mr. Jones his weight gain, and what suggestions would you make to prevent any additional unwanted weight gain
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In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss.
Why do older people gain weight faster?Fat mass increases as muscle mass declines over time. According to studies, having a high proportion of fat mass increases the risk of impairment, mobility difficulties, and poor physical function in older persons.Even though they are less active, many seniors just eat the same amount of food that they did when they were younger. As a result, it's simple for older people to acquire weight without doing anything else.In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss. Our digestive processes become less efficient as we age, resulting in less energy from food being burned as calories and more being deposited as fat.How can the weight be controlled?Obesity and its associated chronic disorders have been demonstrated to be prevented by regular physical activity, even in the extremely old or weak elderly. Physical activity that preserves muscle and bone mass should be prioritized for older persons who are overweight.Getting adequate sleep, believe it or not, can help you burn more calories. You crave more food but feel less full due to hormonal changes that occur when you don't get enough sleep.Sleep deprivation is exacerbated by a lack of sleep, which leads to a need for high-energy foods, which are generally sweet or salty.Protein promotes muscle growth, but if certain forms of protein, such as meat, are difficult to consume, focus on softer sources of protein, such as yogurt.learn more about Weight gain in older people here:
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what is hygiene in medical term
Answers
Answer:
Hygiene: The science of preventive medicine and the preservation of health. Also commonly used as a euphemism for cleanliness and proper sanitation.
Explanation:
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Acupuncture, homeopathy, reflexology, naturopathy, yoga, and biofeedback are what forms of therapies? a. complementary and matriarchal b. alternative and medical c. biomedical and natural d. complementary and alternative
Answers
d. complementary and alternative
A physician assistant orders 0.7 mg of digoxin to be injected in office. If you have 350mcg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?
Answers
So if you only have 350mcg you’ll only inject 0.35mg.
You wouldn’t have enough for a 0.7 mg dose of digoxin that’s needed.
I don’t think you’ve put the right measurements maybe nanogram not milligrams ??
What are stimulants such as Ritalin or Adderall commonly prescribed to treat? To create attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Answers
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is often treated with stimulants like Ritalin or Adderall. These medications raise the levels of specific neurotransmitters, including dopamine, in the brain.
By doing so, they can enhance focus and attention while reducing hyperactivity and impulsivity. Stimulants may also be used for sleep disorders like narcolepsy.
However, it is crucial to remember that these drugs can have adverse effects and must be used under the supervision of a qualified healthcare provider.
Therefore, it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before using these medications.
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A fellow nurse warns nancy that the next patient she will be observing is notorious for getting agitated and hard to communicate with. Nancy needs to apply critical thinking techniques to prepare for a discussion with the patient. What's the first step she do?
A. establish a clear, attainable goal for her discussion with the patient.
B. Examine both sides of potential arguments between her and the patient
C. enact a solution she feel her and the patient will benefit from
D. Consider ideas for resolving any forseen conflict with the patient.
Answers
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is a right and left cervical plexus.
True or false
Answers
The statement "There is a right and left cervical plexus" is True because The cervical plexus is a network of nerves that arises from the ventral rami (branches) of the first four cervical spinal nerves (C1-C4).
It is located in the neck region. The cervical plexus gives rise to various branches and nerves that supply motor and sensory innervation to different structures in the head, neck, and shoulders.
The cervical plexus has a right and left division, with each division supplying its respective side of the neck and upper body. The nerves originating from the cervical plexus control motor functions, such as muscle movement and sensation, in their respective regions.
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