which of the following changes occur after phosphorylation of a protein on tyrosine amino acids ? group of answer choices increased molecular weight, increased acidity and possible interaction with a sh2 domain-containing protein increased molecular weight, decreased acidity and possible interaction with a sh2 domain-containing protein increased molecular weight, decreased acidity and reduced likelihood of interaction with a sh2 domain-containing protein increased molecular weight, no change in charge and possible interaction with a sh2 domain-containing protein increased molecular weight, increased acidity and reduced likelihood of interaction with a sh2 domain-containing protein
Answers
Increased molecular weight, no change in charge and possibly new interaction with a SH2 domain-containing protein. are changes occur after phosphorylation of a protein on tyrosine amino acids.
Phosphorylation is a common post-translational modification of proteins that regulates their activity, localization, and interactions with other proteins. When a protein is phosphorylated on tyrosine amino acids, it undergoes specific changes. The addition of a phosphate group increases the molecular weight of the protein, which may alter its function and stability.
Additionally, phosphorylation of tyrosine residues can change the acidity of the protein, which can affect its interactions with other proteins. One common outcome of tyrosine phosphorylation is the recruitment of SH2 domain-containing proteins, which can bind to specific phosphotyrosine residues and initiate downstream signaling pathways. Overall, phosphorylation of tyrosine residues can have a profound impact on protein structure and function, leading to changes in cellular processes and ultimately influencing organismal physiology.
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Full Question: Which of the following changes occur after phosphorylation of a protein on tyrosine amino acids?
Increased molecular weight, no change in charge and possibly new interaction with a SH2 domain-containing protein.Increased molecular weight, decreased acidity and possibly new interaction with a SH2 domain-containing protein.Increased molecular weight, increased acidity and block interaction with a SH2 domain-containing protein.Increased molecular weight, decreased acidity and block interaction with a SH2 domain-containing protein.Increased molecular weight, increased acidity and possibly new interaction with a SH2 domain-containing proteinRelated Questions
Todd saw three animals. He wrote down some facts about each.Facts About Animals ObservedFact:Animal 1Animal 2Animal 31It is small.It is medium.It is small.2It is furry.It has feathers.It has scales.3It is brown.It is red.It is green.4It is always moving.It moves a lot.It sits still a lot.5Its tail is bushy.Its tail is long.Its tail is smooth.6It has 4 legs.It has 2 legs.It has 4 legs.Todd wants to classify the animals into groups, based on body covering. Which fact will Todd find most useful for doing this?A.fact #4B.fact #5C.fact #2D.fact #3
Answers
Answer:fact 2
Explanation:
Answer:
Fact #2
Explanation:
Mammals, birds, and reptiles usually have different body coverings. Mammals usually have fur or hair, birds usually have feathers, and reptiles usually have scales.
When Todd is classifying (sorting) his three animals into groups based on body covering, he will probably find fact #2 the most useful.
6) What is a mutation? a. Permanent change in the DNA sequence b. Permanent change in the fatty acid sequence c. Temporary change in the DNA sequence d. None of the above
Answers
The correct option is D ; None of the above , Mutations are unintentional changes that arise within the base sequence of DNA.
A genetic mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of a gene that results in something distinct. It causes a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence of that gene. Human evolution, or the process of change over years, requires genetic variations. A gene variant is an alteration to the DNA code that makes up a gene. This type of genetic change was previously referred to as a gene mutation, but because changes in DNA do not always result in disease, it is believed that the word gene variant is more accurate.
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HELP NOW!
Explain how osmotic conditions would lead to cell lysis.
will give brainliest!!
Answers
Some form of early Homo is estimated to have evolved into Homo erectus around: O 5-7.5 million years ago
O 1.7-2 million years ago O 10,000-40,000 years ago O 50,000-70,000 years ago t
Answers
Some form of early Homo is estimated to have evolved into Homo erectus around 1.7-2 million years ago, option B is correct.
Homo erectus is believed to have evolved around 1.7-2 million years ago based on fossil evidence and dating methods. Fossil discoveries, such as the famous Nariokotome Boy skeleton found in Kenya, provide crucial insights into the anatomy and characteristics of Homo erectus. These fossils, along with other archaeological and genetic evidence, suggest that Homo erectus was the first hominin species to exhibit significant anatomical and behavioral differences from earlier hominins.
The emergence of Homo erectus marked a significant milestone in human evolution, as this species had a larger brain size, more advanced tool-making abilities, and potentially even the ability to control fire. These developments laid the foundation for the subsequent evolution of Homo sapiens, option B is correct.
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The complete question is:
Some form of early Homo is estimated to have evolved into Homo erectus around:
A) 5-7.5 million years ago
B) 1.7-2 million years ago
C) 10,000-40,000 years ago
D) 50,000-70,000 years ago
when performing gel electrophoresis on a plant sample that is known to be genetically modified, you would expect the camv35s band to move ________ than the tubulin band because ________. Selected Answer: slower; the base pair size of the band is larger than that of the tubulin band Answers faster; the base pair size of the band is larger than that of the tubulin band faster; the base pair size of the band is smaller than that of the tubulin band slower, the base pair size of the band is larger than that of the tubulin band slower; the base pair size of the band is smaller than that of the tubulin band
Answers
slower; the base pair size of the band is larger than that of the tubulin band. The CAMV35S promoter is often used in genetic modification of plants, and its band size is larger than that of the tubulin gene. Therefore, it would move slower during gel electrophoresis.
Based on their size and charge, biomacromolecules (DNA, RNA, proteins, etc.) and their fragments can be separated and analysed using gel electrophoresis. It is used in clinical chemistry to separate proteins by charge or size (IEF agarose, effectively size independent) and in biochemistry and molecular biology to separate a mixed population of DNA and RNA fragments by length, estimate the size of DNA and RNA fragments, or separate proteins by charge.
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Please help me! Please show the work!
Answers
Answer:
7. 1800cm
8. 0.023
9. 50mm
10. 530,000
Explanation:
7.
18 x 100= 1800
8.
23÷1000= 0.023
9.
5 x 10= 50
10.
5.3 x 10,000= 530,000
Hopefully this helps you a little bit
Researchers collected data about the heart rates of humans aged 5 to 90 years. They represented the data in a graph. Simple correlation graph Which statement is the best explanation of the pattern in the data? A. The data show cause but not correlation between age and heart rate. B. The data show neither correlation nor cause between age and heart rate. C. The data show a correlation between age and heart rate. D. The data show that increasing age causes an increase in heart rate.
Answers
Scatter plots express the correlation between variables, if there is one, through the pattern of points. If there is a correlation, it can be positive or negative. C) The data show a correlation between age and heart rate.
What is the scatter plot?A scatter plot is a graphic tool that represents the existing relationship between two variables.
This representation is set in a cartesian graph, placing one of the variables on the horizontal axis and the other variable on the vertical axis.
The pattern of points intersection can show the relationship between the two variables.
Directly proportional relationship ⇒ while one of the variable values increases, the other variable values increase as well.- High positive correlation ⇒ points are too close to each other
- Low positive correlation ⇒ points are separated from each other
Inversely proportional relationship ⇒ as one of the values of the variables increases the values of other variable decreases.- High negative correlation ⇒ points are too close to each other
- Low negative correlation ⇒ points are separated from each other
No relationship ⇒ There is no tendency in the dispersion of the points. There is a homogeneous cloud. No correlation can be established between variables.Variables in the exposed example are,
Independent variable ⇒ heart rateDependent variable ⇒ AgeWe can see that the older the person is, the fewer beats per minute they express. On the contrary, the younger the person is, the more beats per minute are recorded.
This is a high negative correlation in which points are too close to each other.
Options,
A. The data show cause but not correlation between age and heart rate. Not correct. Data shows a clear correlation between variables.
B. The data show neither correlation nor cause between age and heart rate.
Not correct. Data shows a clear correlation between variables.
C. The data show a correlation between age and heart rate.
Correct. There is a negative correlation between variables.
D. The data show that increasing age causes an increase in heart rate.
Not correct. The older the person is, the fewer heart beats per minute.
Statement C is the best explanation of the pattern in the data. The data show a correlation between age and heart rate.
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Which of the following is a way to mitigate global warming?
Answers
Mitigation strategies include retrofitting buildings to make them more energy efficient; adopting renewable energy sources like solar, wind and small hydro; helping cities develop more sustainable transport such as bus rapid transit, electric vehicles, and biofuels; and promoting more sustainable uses of land and forests.
what does homeostasis look like in a non human body
Answers
Answer:
Whether you're lying in the summer sun or playing in the winter snow, your body temperature only changes by a degree or two. That's an example of homeostasis being maintained. When you get shivery in the cold, or sweat in the summer, that's your body trying to maintain homeostasis.
When a scientist uses many specific observations to construct a general scientific principle, the scientist is using reasoning. T/F
Answers
true. A scientist utilizes reasoning when he or she uses several particular findings to create a broad scientific concept. Induction is a type of reasoning that includes.
taking numerous individual observations and synthesizing them into a general conclusion or principle that may be used to make predictions and comprehend natural occurrences. This is an important part of scientific investigation because it allows scientists to generalize from specific data and construct explanations and ideas that can be verified and developed through time. When a scientist uses many specific observations to construct a general scientific principle, the scientist is using reasoning. This is an important part of scientific investigation because it allows scientists to generalize from specific data and construct explanations and ideas that can be verified and developed through time.
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Which of the following best describes the pathway of parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland?
(A) CN VII . . . greater petrosal nerve . . . nerve of the pterygoid canal . . . pterygopalatine ganglion . . . zygomatic branch of V2 . . . lacrimal branch of V1
(B) CN IX . . . lesser petrosal nerve . . . nerve of the pterygoid canal . . . pterygopalatine ganglion . . . infraorbital branch of V2 . . . lacrimal branch of V1
(C) CN VII . . . greater petrosal nerve . . . otic ganglion . . . infraorbital branch of V2 ... lacrimal branch of V1
(D) CN VII . . . deep petrosal nerve . . . nerve of the pterygoid canal . . . pterygopalatine ganglion . . . infratrochlear branch of V2 . . . lacrimal branch of V1
(E) CN V . . . ophthalmic branch of V1 ... lacrimal branch of V1
Answers
(A) CN VII . . . greater petrosal nerve . . . nerve of the pterygoid canal . . . pterygopalatine ganglion . . . zygomatic branch of V2 . . . lacrimal branch of V1 best describes the pathway of parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland.
The parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland originate in the superior salivatory nucleus of the brainstem. They travel along the facial nerve (CN VII) to the geniculate ganglion. From there, they continue as the greater petrosal nerve, which enters the pterygopalatine fossa. In the pterygopalatine fossa, the greater petrosal nerve synapses with neurons in the pterygopalatine ganglion. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion then travel along the zygomatic branch of the maxillary nerve (V2) to the lacrimal branch of V1. The lacrimal branch of V1 innervates the lacrimal gland.
The other answer choices are incorrect because they do not correctly describe the pathway of parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland. For example, answer choice (B) incorrectly states that the lesser petrosal nerve innervates the lacrimal gland. The lesser petrosal nerve is actually a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and it innervates the parotid gland.
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What human factor has an impact on the flooding of the Yangtze River
Answers
Answer:
Deforestation directly increases erosion and siltation rates. There is an increased risk of flooding in Yangtze River basin in China and the major river basins in East Asia and the Amazonian basin .
Explanation:
Is excess water being removed by your large intestine a physical or chemical change
Answers
Answer:
Physical change
Explanation:
Physical changes only occur when food is broken into smaller pieces, mixed with other substances, or when water is removed from wastes in the your large intestine
Answer: chemical change
What structure is being highlighted?
Answers
Cilia are the highlighted structure. The stratified, keratinized epithelium that is highlighted is squamous epithelium.
Cilia :-
All mammalian cells have cilia, which are tiny, slender, hair-like structures. They may be solitary or many and are of a primitive character. Cilia are important for movement. They take part in mechanoreception as well. Ciliates are the name for organisms with cilia.
squamous epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium: This kind of epithelium usually lines blood arteries and bodily cavities and controls how much material may enter the underlying tissue. Simple cuboidal epithelium: Kidney tubules and glandular (secreting) tissue frequently contain this form of epithelium.
Your skin's epithelium is a delicate tissue that covers glands and other internal organs. You have squamous cells all over your body. Squamous metaplasia can occasionally develop into cancer.
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20. There are many different ways that speciation can occur. These can include reproductive isolation and geographic isolation. Write your answer on the lines. Explain how genetic variations helped anoles survive a migration from one type of environment to another. 1
Answers
Answer:
Genetic variations helped anoles survive a migration from one type of environment to another because of the way the genetics were set up/ passed down to the anoles. They also could have adapted really quick by the way there skin and body make up is.
3. In order for a population to grow, the birth rates must equal the death rates.
True
False
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The death rates would stop growth.
explain how newton’s 1st law impacts the motion of a rocket
Answers
Answer:
The momentum change of the gases gives the rocket the "push" to go forward.
We call this push, the thrust of the rocket, i.e. the force exerted on the rocket.
Answer:
Like all objects, rockets are governed by Newton's Law of Motion. The first law describes how an object acts when no force is acting upon it. So, rockets stay until a force is applied to move them Likewise, once they're in motion there is no stopping them.
Explanation:
Rewrite your own words.
The tails of animals can serve many important functions. They are mainly used in balance and locomotion. Many lizards have a fragile, detachable tail that will come off when they are attacked by predators, allowing them to escape.Why is the presence of a brightly colored, detachable tail an advantage for some lizards?
A. They are more likely to attract mates.
B. Predators more likely grab them by the tail:
C. It helps them blend into natural environtment
D. Predator likely to be frightened away by a brightly collored tail
Answers
The presence of a brightly colored, detachable tail is an advantage for some lizards because predators are likely to be frightened away by a brightly colored tail. The correct option is D.
What is a detachable tail?
A detachable tail is a tail that can be disconnected from the body when under pressure from a predator or other threats. This adaptation is primarily seen in lizards, which have the ability to shed their tails as a form of self-defense.
Why is the presence of a brightly colored, detachable tail an advantage for some lizards?
Bright coloration is an evolutionary adaptation that may indicate danger to potential predators. In some cases, it may help predators to avoid attacking. When a lizard's tail is brightly colored and detachable, it can be used as a defense mechanism.
The lizard can use its tail as a decoy to attract predators to the tail, which can then be shed, allowing the lizard to escape. Predators, seeing the brightly colored tail, may be frightened away by the apparent danger it represents to them.
Another potential advantage of a brightly colored, detachable tail is that it may make it easier for the lizard to attract mates. This is because bright colors are often associated with sexual selection, which means that males with bright, attractive colors are more likely to be chosen by females during the mating process.
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Help pleaseeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
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I NEED HELP QUICK!
Which example is a biotic factor of a desert environment?
A. coyote
B. sand
C. light
D. air temperature
Answers
Answer: A.
Explanation: The prefix "Bio" in biotic means living. The Coyote is the only living option
Answer: Its A) COYOTE
Explanation:
What is the major function of meiosis?
to produce haploid (1N) gametes
to produce diploid (2N) gametes
to produce haploid (1N) zygotes
to produce diploid (2N) zygotes
Answers
Answer:
To produce diploid (2N) zygote
.5
**About half the offspring would be expected to inherit the IA allele and be phenotypically A.
If one parent is blood type AB and the other is type O, what fraction of their offspring are expected to have blood type A?
Answers
Answer:
1/2 that is 50% of offsprings will have blood type A
Explanation:
AB blood group has two alleles IA and IB , O blood has 1 allele IO,SO:
. IO. IO.
IA AO. AO
IB BO. BO
A is a dominant allele so 50% of offsprings will have blood type
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ipt Which characteristic do all organisms share?
O A. All organisms are made of cells.
O B. All organisms have cells with cell walls.
O C. All organisms can make their own food.
O D. All organisms have cells with a nucleus.
Answers
Answer:
All organisms are made of cells
Explanation:
Cells are the basic building blocks of living things. The human body is composed of trillions of cells, all with their own specialised function. Cells are the basic structures of all living organisms.
6. When does the DNA in a cell replicate?
a. before cell division (mitosis or meiosis)
b. during cell division (mitosis or meiosis)
after cell division (mitosis or meiosis)
d. at random times throughout the cell's life cycle
Answers
Answer:
the answer is A before cell division (mitosis or meiosis)
Explanation:
The S phase of a cell cycle occurs during interphase, before mitosis or meiosis, and is responsible for the synthesis or replication of DNA. In this way, the genetic material of a cell is doubled before it enters mitosis or meiosis, allowing there to be enough DNA to be split into daughter cells.
fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, enabling the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth.
Answers
The fontanels in the fetal skull are soft spots where the bones have not yet fully fused together. These fontanels play an important role during childbirth by allowing some movement of the skull bones, which enables the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal.
During pregnancy, the fetal skull is not fully formed and consists of several separate bones. The fontanels are the areas where these bones meet, and they are made up of fibrous tissue. The fontanels are flexible and have some space between the bones, which allows for slight movement.
The fontanels serve a few key purposes during childbirth. Firstly, they allow the skull to change shape slightly, which helps the fetus navigate through the birth canal. The bones can overlap or compress slightly, reducing the size of the skull and making it easier for the fetus to pass through the narrow canal.
Secondly, the fontanels also provide some cushioning and protection to the brain. The fontanels are covered by a tough membrane that helps absorb the pressure exerted on the skull during childbirth.
It is important to note that the fontanels gradually close and the bones of the skull fuse together after birth. This process usually takes several months to complete.
In summary, fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, which allows the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth. They provide flexibility and cushioning, aiding in the birthing process.
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describe the base pairing rules for rna
Answers
Answer:
A to U ; C to G
Explanation:
What disorder do you suspect? What is the confirmatory serology testing?-WBC=12.5 x 109/L-Absolute lymphocyte count is 4.8 x 109/L-20% reactive lymphocytes seen on the smear-Heterophile antibody is negative x2-Alkaline phosphatase and ALT are high?
Answers
Based on the provided information, it is possible that the patient has a disorder called Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection. The confirmatory serology testing for EBV infection includes testing for EBV-specific antibodies, such as the EBV viral capsid antigen (VCA) IgM and IgG antibodies.
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection is also known as infectious mononucleosis. The symptoms that indicate this disorder include a high white blood cell (WBC) count, a high absolute lymphocyte count, and the presence of reactive lymphocytes on the smear. Additionally, the elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and ALT are also indicative of this disorder.
The confirmatory serology testing for EBV infection includes testing for EBV-specific antibodies, such as the EBV viral capsid antigen (VCA) IgM and IgG antibodies, the EBV early antigen (EA) IgG antibody, and the EBV nuclear antigen (EBNA) IgG antibody. A positive result for the VCA IgM antibody indicates a current or recent infection, while a positive result for the VCA IgG and EA IgG antibodies indicates a past infection. A positive result for the EBNA IgG antibody indicates a past infection that occurred at least 6-8 weeks prior to testing.
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hemophilia a is an x-linked recessive disorder characterized by lack of a functional factor viii, a protein involved in blood clotting. in one population, the frequency of the normal allele, x 1, is 0.98 and the frequency of the mutant allele that causes hemophilia a, x 2, is 0.02.
Answers
In this population, hemophilia A affects 2% of the males.
Why is hemophilia A a condition that is X-linked recessive?Due to the fact that males only have one X chromosome, hemophilia is a hereditary condition that is X-linked and recessive in nature. Females are typically carriers since they have an extra X chromosome, however heterozygous carriers frequently exhibit hemophilia symptoms.
Is factor 8 a problem with blood clotting?The Hemophilia is an additional genetic clotting condition that involves factor VIII. Von Willebrand disease, however, affects both sexes equally and is typically more mild than hemophilia, which primarily affects men.
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Identify the structures of the heart.
label A
Label B
Label C
Label D
Label E
Label F
Answers
Answer:
A. Pulmonary value
B. Tricuspid value
C. Septum
D. Bicuspid value
E. Aortic value
F. Aorta
what is thought to cause the 1 ms inactive time after a sodium channel initiates an action potential?
Answers
The sodium channels that once initiate an action potential remain inactivated for a brief period after being open due to the absolute refractory period.
In neurons, the absolute refractory period occurs for a fraction of a millisecond to ensure that another action potential does not start immediately. This period occurs due to the inactivation of sodium ion channels that generally opens to depolarise the membrane. After the sodium channel gets back to resting conformation i.e., sodium channels remain inactivated until the membrane is hyperpolarised. Then sodium channel is activated to start a new action potential.
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