which of the following statements is false? a. allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra account that is used to reduce accounts receivable to its net realizable value. b. because the allowance method results in better matching, accounting standards require its use rather than the direct write-off method, unless bad debts are immaterial. c. the reason the allowance method of recognizing bad debts is used is primarily because it recognizes higher amount of accounts receivable on the balance sheet than the direct method. d. an aging schedule typically categorizes the various accounts by the length of time each invoice is outstanding. e. bad debts expense is debited and allowance for doubtful accounts is credited at the end of the period to recognize bad debts under the allowance method.

Answers

Answer 1

The allowance approach is primarily used to produce a more precise estimate of the bad debt expense and to better match revenue and expenses, hence option (C) is erroneous.

Which of the subsequent claims on the tolerance for uncertain accounts is true?

The right answer is (a) The usual balance is a credit, while an allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra asset account. Based on information from the previous year and projections for the future, the management transfers a certain amount to the allowance for doubtful accounts each year.

Is the account to which the allowance for doubtful accounts' balance is added a counter asset account?

A debit balance typically represents accounts receivable. Its allowance for doubtful accounts counter asset account will have a credit balance. When you include.

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Related Questions

I’m not sure what the answer is.

Im not sure what the answer is.

Answers

Answer:

I think revenue

Explanation:

the Answer is B I'm for sure

QUESTION 22
AcquirerCo agreed to buy 78% of TargetCo in an all-stock transaction. TargetCo stockholders will receive 2 share(s) of AcquirerCo common stock for every 1 share(s) of TargetCo stock. AcquirerCo’s share price closed at $23.84 a day prior to the announcement. TargetCo has 22 million shares outstanding.
Calculate the equity value (Round to to decimal places).

Answers

The equity value of TargetCo in the transaction is approximately $1,049,760,000.

To calculate the equity value, we need to determine the total value of TargetCo's shares based on the exchange ratio and AcquirerCo's share price.

The exchange ratio states that for every 1 share of TargetCo stock, TargetCo stockholders will receive 2 shares of AcquirerCo common stock. Since TargetCo has 22 million shares outstanding, the total number of shares that TargetCo stockholders will receive in the transaction is 22 million * 2 = 44 million shares of AcquirerCo common stock.

Next, we need to calculate the value of these 44 million shares based on AcquirerCo's share price. AcquirerCo's share price closed at $23.84 a day before the announcement. So, the equity value of TargetCo in the all-stock transaction is 44 million shares * $23.84 = $1,049,760,000.

Therefore, the equity value of TargetCo in the transaction is approximately $1,049,760,000.

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A 60-day note receivable dated June 17 has a maturity date of

Answers

Answer:

the maturity date is August 12

Explanation:

The computation of the maturity date of 60 day note receivable dated on June 17 is as follows

Here we have to determine the 60 days from June 17

So in June, the remaining days left would be = (30 - 17) = 13

31 days in July

And, the rest of the days i.e. 12 days in August

So, the maturity date is August 12

Hence, the same would be considered

and, the same is relevant

You bought 100 shares of stock at $15 per share. You sold your 100 shares at $21.75 per share. Calculate your percentage of gain. a) 18% b) 21% c) 31% d) 45%

Answers

Answer:

45%

Explanation:

2175-1500=675

675/1500=.45 or 45%

You are a manager of a large Grocery store (e.g. Kroger). What type of leadership activities should you RAISE by prioritizing these types of tasks or strategic planning? How would this benefit the store?

Answers

As a manager of a large grocery store, prioritizing strategic planning activities can greatly benefit the store and its overall success. The following leadership activities should be raised by prioritizing strategic planning:

1. Setting Clear Goals and Objectives: Engage in strategic planning to establish clear goals and objectives for the grocery store. This involves analyzing market trends, identifying growth opportunities, and defining targets for sales, customer satisfaction, and operational efficiency. By setting clear goals, the entire store team can align their efforts and work towards common objectives, fostering a sense of direction and purpose.

2. Developing Actionable Strategies: Strategic planning helps in developing actionable strategies to achieve the established goals. This involves analyzing internal strengths and weaknesses, identifying competitive advantages, and formulating plans to capitalize on opportunities and overcome challenges. For instance, the store might devise strategies to enhance product assortment, improve customer service, or implement cost-saving measures. By developing effective strategies, the grocery store can differentiate itself from competitors, attract more customers, and drive overall growth.

3. Allocating Resources and Prioritizing Initiatives: Strategic planning allows for effective resource allocation and prioritization of initiatives. By conducting thorough analysis and evaluation, the manager can identify resource requirements and allocate budgets, staffing, and other resources accordingly. This helps in optimizing the use of resources, ensuring that they are utilized in the most impactful way. Additionally, by prioritizing initiatives based on their strategic importance, the store can focus its efforts on the areas that have the greatest potential for growth and improvement.

4. Monitoring Progress and Making Adjustments: Strategic planning involves regular monitoring of progress towards goals and making necessary adjustments. The manager should establish key performance indicators (KPIs) and implement systems to track and evaluate the store's performance. By monitoring metrics such as sales revenue, customer satisfaction scores, and operational efficiency, the manager can identify areas of improvement and take corrective actions as needed. This iterative process of monitoring and adjusting allows the store to stay on track, adapt to changing market conditions, and continuously improve its performance.

5. Regular monitoring of progress enables timely interventions and adjustments, ensuring that the store remains agile and responsive to market dynamics. Ultimately, prioritizing strategic planning as a leadership activity sets the foundation for sustainable growth and success of the grocery store.

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Discuss reasons why a business might choose to sell direct to customers through a website with e-commerce facilities, as opposed to through fixed (physical ‘bricks and mortar') premises.

Answers

Answer:

Businesses might prefer selling direct to customers through a website with e-commerce facilities because:

1. For covering a wider distance, distance is not a barrier.

2. For flexibility for customers, as some e-commerce even accepts cryptocurrency payments.

3. For product and price comparison.

4. For saving cost incurred from having fixed (physical ‘bricks and mortar') premises.

5. For saving the cost of paying workers.

6. For maintaining social distancing protocol given by the government especially during the pandemic. This doesn't put anyone at risk.

Explanation:

The question above asks for justifications why a business might choose to sell direct to customers through a website with e-commerce facilities rather than selling to customers through fixed (physical ‘bricks and mortar') premises.

First, selling to customers through a website with e-commerce facilities involve virtual transactions with customers paying for goods and services they are interested in over the internet. With this, customers can pay with their bank cards through e-commerce websites. While selling through fixed (physical ‘bricks and mortar') premises involve direct contact in-person with the customer and possibly payment is made in cash or through any other accepted methods.

place rock unit events in order.
3. (Note: The surface is not a layer. It is ground-level, complete with happy little trees.) \( \mathrm{A} 3 \) Homework \( - \) Unanswered Place the rock units events in order from oldest on bottom t

Answers

To place the rock unit events in order from oldest to youngest, we need to consider the principle of superposition, which states that in an undisturbed sequence of rock layers.

1. Homework: This event is the most recent one as it is mentioned last in the given list.2. A3: This event is mentioned before Homework, suggesting that it occurred earlier than Homework.3. Unanswered: This event is mentioned before A3, indicating that it happened before A3.Therefore, the correct order from oldest to youngest is: Unanswered → A3 → Homework.we need to consider the principle of superposition, which states that in an undisturbed sequence of rock layers, the youngest rocks are on top, while the oldest rocks are at the bottom.

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The change in total output attributable to the last unit of an input is the:
a. marginal return
b. total product.
c. Marginal product
d. average product.

Answers

The change in total output attributable to the last unit of an input is the Marginal product. The correct answer is option a.

Marginal product refers to the additional output produced when one additional unit of input (such as labor, capital, or raw material) is added while keeping other inputs constant. It represents the change in total output resulting from the increase in input by one unit.

The marginal product helps measure the productivity or efficiency gained by adding an extra unit of input. It is calculated by dividing the change in total output by the change in the quantity of the input. By analyzing the marginal product, businesses can make informed decisions about input allocation and resource utilization to maximize production efficiency.

Option a, "marginal return," is not the correct term used to describe the change in total output attributable to the last unit of an input.

Option b, "total product," refers to the overall output or quantity of goods or services produced using all available inputs.

Option d, "average product," represents the average output per unit of input and is calculated by dividing the total output by the quantity of the input. It does not specifically describe the change in total output resulting from the last unit of input.

The correct answer is option a.

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Describe how the language and the culture you grew up with, play a role in your communication styles?

Answers

Culture is one of the biggest roles in your mannerisms. For example, in some cultures, eye contact is important whereas in some it is rude and disrespectful.

How does Ana spend her time in seedfolks?

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Got it right on edg 2020

who is the apple board of directors?

Answers

The board is comprised of eight members, including the CEO of Apple, Tim Cook, and several high-profile business leaders and experts.

Tim Cook - CEO of Apple, James Bell - Former CFO of Boeing Company, Al Gore - Former Vice President of the United States, Andrea Jung - President and CEO of Grameen America, Art Levinson - Chairman of, Apple's board and CEO of Calico, Ron Sugar - Former CEO of Northrop Grumman Corporation, Sue Wagner - Founding Partner of BlackRock, Jeff Williams - Chief Operating Officer of Apple.

The Apple Board of Directors is responsible for overseeing the strategic direction and financial performance of the company. The board meets regularly to review and approve important decisions related to operations, finance, and corporate governance.

Apple's board of directors is made up of individuals with diverse backgrounds and expertise, including technology, finance, and public policy. The board is committed to upholding Apple's values and ensuring the company continues to be a leader in innovation, sustainability, and social responsibility.

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A. trade-off
B. investment
C. frontier
D. growth ​

A. trade-offB. investmentC. frontierD. growth

Answers

Answer:

The answer is "Option C"

Explanation:

The curve on the graph is also known as the arc, which is used in the connected mixture of perceptual lines to three additional lines in standard dual points. The Frontier production options is a nice graph of all the various output mixture of different products which can be produced utilizing existing techniques and knowledge.

QUESTION 3 of 10: Two major circus acts have agreed to perform at the stadium if they can get seven consecutive days each. On average,
each performance will provide a profit margin of $35,000 for the stadium. How much will the stadium's profit margin be if it signs both acts to
one-week deals?
a) $100,000
b) $250,000
c) $490,000
d) $500,000

Answers

The answer is C - $490,000.

35000x7 = 245000
245000x2 = 490000

There are 2 acts, and they want to perform for 7 consecutive days each. The stadium gets $35000 per performance, and there will be a total of 14 performances. This means that the stadium will have a profit margin of $490000.

Which of the following taxpayers in most likely to have income or loss from a passive activity? Jerald- He is a general partner in a financial planning business, and he manages the day-to-day operations of the business Holly- She in a full-time employee at a limited liability law partnership. Robert- He is a self-employed legal consultant, and he spent 500 hours during the current your doing legal work. He also owns rental property and he spent 900 hours making repairs and management decisions relating to his rental property Judy- She has invested in a limited partnership that designs specialty t-shirts, but she does not actively participate in any business or management activities

Answers

Passive activity is any activity in which the taxpayer does not actively participate.

Taxpayers with passive activities have income or losses that are treated differently than income or losses from non-passive activities. They are generally not fully deductible in the current tax year but are carried forward to future years and used to offset future passive activity income.

The passive activity rules limit the taxpayer's ability to deduct passive activity losses against income from other sources. Judy is most likely to have income or loss from a passive activity. She has invested in a limited partnership that designs specialty t-shirts, but she does not actively participate in any business or management activities.

Because Judy does not actively participate in the business, the partnership's income or loss is considered passive income or loss. As a result, Judy's ability to deduct losses from her investment is subject to the passive activity rules.

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If the stock turnover rate for your industry is 3, how many months' worth of inventory should you keep in stock at all times? (a) 2. (b) 3, (c) 4,
(d) 9.

Answers

Answer:

2

Explanation:

What should he do to get to the appropriate cell?

Answers

Answer:

which appropriate cell , the question is not clear

A. Press the tab key

got it correct on edge :)

explain the federal trade commission regulations that govern the use of celebrity endorsers.

Answers

Federal consumer protection laws are enforced by the FTC to stop fraud, deceit, and unfair commercial practices.

Additionally, the Commission upholds federal antitrust rules, which forbid anticompetitive acquisitions and other commercial activities that can result in higher costs, fewer options, or less innovation. Endorsements are a crucial marketing technique for companies that sell products to consumers. But according to the law, they must also be truthful and not deceptive. According to the rules regarding celebrity endorsements, any celebrities who are endorsing a product must complete their research on it before deciding to do so.

The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, the Lanham Act, which is the federal law against false advertising, and the FTC Act, which forbids "unfair or deceptive acts or activities."

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A job search should be treated like a full time job.
True or False

Answers

Answer:True in some cases

Explanation:

True.. it could be easy to prevent frequent turnover of employees and a pleasant job satisfaction

mark me as brainliest

Do you have any sales or negotiating experience? Tell me about one sale, or negotiation you completed at your previous position.

Answers

Yes. At my previous position, I was responsible for negotiating contracts with suppliers. One particular negotiation that stands out was when I was able to secure a 10% discount on a large order of supplies by demonstrating our loyalty as a long-term customer and highlighting our consistent business.

The importance of Sales and negotiating skills

Sales and negotiating skills are essential in many roles and can make a significant impact on an organization's success.

If you have experience in this area, it's essential to highlight it during job interviews. When discussing a previous sale or negotiation, it's important to provide specific details such as the client's needs and goals, the strategies you employed, and the outcome.

Demonstrating your ability to close a deal, build relationships, and handle objections effectively can give potential employers confidence in your ability to succeed in a sales or negotiation role.

It's also helpful to discuss any challenges you faced and how you overcame them, as this can show your resilience and problem-solving skills.

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Do you believe that John and Sharon would be better off trading jobs with each other?

Answers

This needs more context-

a property that sold for $203,500 was financed with a new mortgage loan of $162,800. what amount must be charged for documentary stamp taxes on the deed if the property is not located in dade county?

Answers

A property that sold for $203,500 was financed with a new mortgage loan of $162,800. The amount that must be charged for documentary stamp taxes on the deed if the property is not located in Dade County is $2,876.

What is a documentary stamp tax?

A documentary stamp tax is a state sales tax on deeds and documents (generally known as "documents") evidencing transactions concerning the transfer of ownership or interest in Florida real estate. For every $100 or fraction thereof, this tax is assessed at a rate of 70 cents. To prevent the circumvention of stamp taxes, transactions that have little or no cash payment are also subject to the tax.

Thus, the computation of documentary stamp taxes is as follows:

Documentary stamp tax = [ (Amount of new mortgage loan ÷ $100) x $0.35 ] + [ (Property sale price ÷ $100) x $0.70 ]

Documentary stamp tax = [ (162800 ÷ 100) x 0.35 ] + [ (203500 ÷ 100) x 0.70 ]Documentary stamp tax = [ 570.8 x 0.35 ] + [ 290.9 x 0.70 ]

Documentary stamp tax = 199.78 + 203.63

Documentary stamp tax = 403.41

Hence, the amount that must be charged for documentary stamp taxes on the deed if the property is not located in Dade County is $2,876.

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i will give brainiest to the answer that is right

i will give brainiest to the answer that is right

Answers

Answer:

D. 14.99%

Explanation:

Which of the following best describes the law of supply and demand?
A. When a desirable product or service is plentiful, its value increases.

B. Businesses can charge extra for products that people use every day.

C. When there is a high demand for a product, it is hard to supply.

D. When a desirable product or service is scarce, its value increases,

Answers

Answer:

d is you answer

Explanation:

Answer:

D. When a desirable product or service is scarce, its value increases.

Explanation:

Because more people want a product that there is less of, meaning they will raise the price.

Morgan and Dana are partners. The partnership capital for Morgan is $50,000 and for Dana is $60,000. Townsend is admitted as a new partner by investing $40,000 cash. Townsend is given a 25% interest in return for her investment. The amount of the bonus to the old partners is

Answers

Answer:

$2,500

Explanation:

Given the following:

Old partners :

Morgan's partnership capital = $50,000

Dana's partnership capital = $60,000

New partner :

Townsend's partnership capital = $40,000

Total partnership capital :

Old partner + new partner

$(50,000+60,000+40,000) = $150,000

Townsend's investment return :

25% of total partnership investment

0.25 × $150,000 = $37,500

Bonus to old old partners:

Townsend's investment capital - Townsend's return

$(40,000 - 37,500) = $2,500

Bonus to old partners = $2,500

how can we control the quality in the tourism industry?

Answers

Answer:

Avoid mainstream and/or iconic destinations. ...

Make “second city” tourism a habit. ...

Highlight lesser known places. ...

Travel as slowly as possible. ...

Travel in smaller groups. ...

Make sure people in your photos have given consent.

If markets are semi-strong form efficient, should you earn a profit (on average) from investing?
A. No, if markets are efficient, that means you can't find a way to trade that earns a profit. You should just own an ETF.
B. Yes, because you should still earn a risk premium.
C. It depends. You might be able to earn a profit if you use illegal inside information.

Answers

If markets are semi-strong form efficient, you cannot earn a profit (on average) from investing. The answer is A.

The semi-strong form efficient market hypothesis is a form of the efficient market hypothesis (EMH) that claims that all publicly available information is incorporated into market prices. This means that new information, such as the results of company reports, and other types of financial data, is immediately reflected in the security's price.

According to the semi-strong form efficient market hypothesis, an investor cannot achieve an average profit because new information is instantly incorporated into the security price. Furthermore, the security prices are correct, implying that there are no undervalued or overvalued securities in the market.

As a result, the best strategy is to buy and hold a portfolio of securities that mimics a wide market index or exchange-traded fund (ETF).Therefore, if markets are semi-strong form efficient, you cannot earn a profit (on average) from investing.

Option A is correct.

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changes in demand for the product (shifters of resource demand)

Answers

Changes in demand for a product can result in significant shifts in resource demand. When demand for a product increases, producers will need to use more resources, such as labor, raw materials, and energy, to keep up with demand.



On the other hand, when demand for a product decreases, resource demand will also decrease, as producers scale back production and use fewer resources. This decrease in resource demand can lead to lower prices for these resources, as suppliers try to sell their excess inventory.
In addition, changes in demand can also affect the types of resources that are in demand. For example, if demand for a product that requires a certain raw material increases, the demand for that material will also increase, while the demand for other materials may decrease. This can cause shifts in production and resource allocation across industries, as suppliers try to meet changing demands.
Overall, changes in demand for a product can have far-reaching effects on resource demand, prices, and production across industries. Understanding these shifts in resource demand can help producers and suppliers make informed decisions about resource allocation and pricing strategies.

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The point at which it is no longer advantageous to buy in bulk is known as marginalcost.tipping.benefit.error. cost.
tipping.
benefit.
error.

Answers

Marginal cost is the price at which purchasing in large quantities becomes unprofitable.

What is a Marginal cost? The satisfaction or advantage gained from using a product is referred to as utility in economics. The amount of pleasure or satisfaction that customers receive or lose as a result of increasing or decreasing their consumption by one unit is referred to as the marginal utility of a good or service. Marginal utility comes in three different forms. The most a consumer will spend on an additional commodity or service is known as the marginal benefit. When a consumer purchases an additional good or service, it also includes the increased satisfaction or utility they will experience. The marginal benefit is the extra pleasure or utility a person gets from consuming one more unit of a good or service.

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instructions:wikarambulan is a sound like game. by saying\pronouncing and connecting the word, reveal the elements and factors of principles, tools and techniques in creating a business. write your answer on the blank space provided in the side of the paper.
1. IS TRE ENGCKS
2. OP FORTUNE NI TEAS
3. WEEK NEST CES
4.THREE EATS
5. IN DUST TREE
6. END BY RON MEANT ALL
7. PIE HAVE FOUR ZEST
8. ENCHO NO MEEK
9. SOAP FLYER
10. COST TOO MHER​

Answers

Answer:

1.strengths

2.opportunities

3.weakneses

4.threats

5.industry

6.environment

8.economic

9.supliyer

10.customer

Which of the following is usually true
about the demand of consumers who
make more money?
A. They demand less of lower quality products.
B. They demand more of lower quality products.
C. They demand the same amount of lower quality
products.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

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Which statements about cellular respiration are true? Choose more than one answer. a 5 mm diameter, 50 mm long glass tube filled with water is rotated at 1000 rpm. what is the pressure at point a? which of the following features of a cash register help prevent fraud by discouraging the sales clerk from entering a lower amount and pocketing the difference? select answer from the options below having a different cash drawer for each sales clerk requiring customers to pay with a credit or debit card rather than cash requiring the sales clerk to take out both the cash drawer and the cash register tape at the end of the shift having the sales amount clearly visible to the customer which of the following is supported by research on dynamic assessment? group of answer choices dynamic assessments have been criticized for being more culturally biased than traditional intelligence tests. children's capacity to transfer what they have learned to novel problems contributes substantially to gains in intelligence test performance. most experts believe that dynamic assessment provides a more accurate prediction of academic achievement and vocational success than traditional intelligence tests. in some instances, dynamic assessment can underestimate the abilities of ethnic minority children. a banker reviews 40 loan applications a day. the acceptance rate of a loan application is 25%. suppose that the acceptance decision is independent across applications. what is the mean and variance of the number of accepted application by the banker in a day? 50 Points! Multiple choice geometry question. Photo attached. Thank you! Consider Shakespeares use of the elements of drama and tragedy in Act I of Hamlet. What overall effect do Shakespeares choices have on the audience?The audience is drawn into a suspenseful story.The audience assumes that everything will work out for Hamlet.The audience is ready to laugh at a comedic story.The audience can guess everything that is going to happen. atlas door created competitive advantages in overall low cost leadership and differentiation by creating _____ among value-chain activities. group of answer choices a. linkagesb. disadvantages c. substitutesd. advantages Find the values of x and y. Write your answersin simplest form.y306060x=y= Use implicit differentiation to find an equation of the tangent line to the curve sin(x+y)=8x8y at the point (,) according to the research, which of the following were true of preschoolers who were able to delay gratification? Translate the sentence into an equation.Seven more than the quotient of a number and 4 is equal 5to . Write the percent as a decimal.95% Determine the equation of the quadratic function whose roots are(3-2) and (3+2) and whose representative curve passes through thepoint (6, 14). For a given level of technology, we should expect an increase in labor productivity within a nation where there is an increase in each of the following excepta. human capital per workerb. physical capital per workerc. natural resources per workerd. labor what is a province in Canada most like Consider a 30-year S200,000 5/1 ARM having a 2.6% margin and based on the CMT index. Assume that is carries a payment cap of 8% and the monthly payments for the 6th year are $1448 77 at an annual interest rate of 8.1%. Also assume that the CMT index is 8.3% at the beginning of the 7th year and all interest rates are compounded monthly (a) Calculate the unpaid balance of the loan at the beginning of the 7th year (b) Calculate the monthly payment for the 7th year without using the payment cap (c) Calculate the monthly payment for the 7th year using the payment cap (d) How much interest is due for the 73rd month? (e) Determine the unpaid balance at the end of the 73rd month ? after collecting the data, maria finds that the number of points per game for a certain basketball player is normally distributed with mean 14 points and standard deviation 2 points. based on the empirical rule, what is the probability that in a randomly selected game, the player scored less than 8 points? enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places if necessary. provide your answer below: $$% on april 1, 2024, washtenaw corporation realizes that one of its main suppliers is having difficulty meeting delivery schedules, which is hurting washtenaw's business. the supplier explains that it has a temporary lack of funds that is slowing its production cycle. washtenaw agrees to lend $420,000 to its supplier using a 12-month, 12% note. required: record the following transactions for washtenaw corporation: the loan of $420,000 and acceptance of the note receivable on april 1, 2024. the adjusting entry for accrued interest on december 31, 2024. cash collection of the note and interest on april 1, 2025. True or False. the least reliable predictor of how people will interpret the implications of an announcement of change is their experience of previous organizational changes.