which operant conditioning tool should sally use if she wants to curtail the performance of dysfunctional behaviors by eliminating whatever is reinforcing the behaviors?

Answers

Answer 1

Sally should use the operant conditioning tool of extinction if she wants to curtail the performance of dysfunctional behaviors by eliminating whatever is reinforcing those behaviors.

Extinction is a technique used in operant conditioning to decrease the frequency of a behavior by removing the reinforcement that is maintaining it. By withholding the positive reinforcement or reward that is reinforcing dysfunctional behaviors, Sally can decrease the likelihood of those behaviors occurring in the future. This process involves consistently not providing the reinforcement following the behavior, which eventually leads to a decrease or extinction of the behavior.

if Sally's dysfunctional behavior is seeking attention through negative means, such as tantrums, she can use extinction by ignoring the tantrums and not giving in to the attention-seeking behavior. Over time, as the tantrums no longer produce the desired attention, Sally may stop engaging in those behaviors.

Sally should implement the operant conditioning technique of extinction to curtail the performance of dysfunctional behaviors. By removing the reinforcement that is maintaining those behaviors, she can reduce their occurrence over time. It is important for Sally to be consistent in applying extinction and to seek guidance from a professional, such as a therapist or behavior specialist, for appropriate implementation of this technique.

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Related Questions

Explain why a viral infection cannot be treated with antibiotics.
(Please help)

Answers

Answer:

It cannot be treated with antibiotics because they have no direction in which to target the virus itself, The bacteria and viruses doesn't run on the same Mechanism, instead they go very differently when it comes to treating them.

culture change means basing care on each individuals needs

Answers

what about it? do you have a question i could answer because i’m not sure i can answer this.

Mrs. West wears glasses and dentures and has enjoyed considerable pain relief from arthritis through massage therapy. She is concerned about whether or not Medicare will cover these items and services. What should you tell her?

Answers

You should ask Mrs. West to contact either Medicare and ask them personally if they cover the services or ask the company who she receives massage therapy from, her glasses and dentures if they accept Medicare coverage.

I will simply inform Mrs. West that Medicare does not cover glasses, dentures or massage therapy.

Some of the things that are covered under Medicare include hospital care, surgery, hospice etc.

On the other hand, Medicare doesn't cover eye exams, dentures cosmetic surgeries. Also, it should be noted that long term care isn't covered by Medicare.

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what is the medical assistant's role during the eye irrigation?

Answers

Assisting the Physician
Assisting the optometrist or ophthalmologist is part of the job duties for an ophthalmic medical assistant. They administer eye medication, in accordance with their protocols or direct order from the doctor. Ophthalmic MA help ophthalmologists during eye surgery and procedures.

During eye irrigation, the medical assistant plays a crucial role in assisting the healthcare provider and ensuring the procedure is performed safely and effectively. Their responsibilities may include:

1. Preparing the Equipment: The medical assistant gathers the necessary equipment for eye irrigation, which typically includes an eye irrigating solution, sterile irrigation set or bulb syringe, clean towels or gauze, and a clean basin or tray to catch the irrigation fluid. They ensure that all equipment is clean and readily accessible.

2. Assisting the Patient: The medical assistant helps the patient prepare for the procedure. They explain the process, ensuring the patient understands what to expect. The assistant also ensures the patient is comfortably positioned, with their head stabilized and proper eye exposure for irrigation.

3. Sterilizing and Preparing the Area: Before the procedure, the medical assistant ensures the area around the eye is clean and sterile. They may assist in cleaning the eyelids and surrounding area with an antiseptic solution, minimizing the risk of infection during the procedure.

4. Handing Instruments and Irrigation Solutions: During the irrigation, the medical assistant assists by handing the necessary instruments and irrigation solutions to the healthcare provider. They ensure that the irrigation solution is at the appropriate temperature and readily available for use.

5. Assisting with Patient Comfort: The medical assistant helps ensure patient comfort during the procedure. They may hold the patient's head or assist in keeping the eye open or properly positioned for effective irrigation. They provide reassurance and support to the patient throughout the process.

6. Monitoring the Procedure: While the healthcare provider performs the eye irrigation, the medical assistant closely observes the patient for any signs of discomfort, pain, or adverse reactions. They communicate any concerns or changes in the patient's condition to the provider promptly.

7. Post-Procedure Care and Documentation: After the irrigation is completed, the medical assistant may assist the patient in post-procedure care, such as providing instructions on the use of prescribed eye drops or applying an eye patch, if necessary. They may also document the procedure, including details about the irrigation process, any complications, and the patient's response, in the patient's medical records.

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if a nurse has reason to believe a medication order is inaccurate or contraindicated, the standards of nursing practice require the nurse to do all of the following except

Answers

With the exception of B), the nurse is required by the standards of nursing practice to administer the drug as directed and report any issues in the patient's medical file. The Standards of Nursing should be followed whenever a nurse has cause to suspect a medicine order is incorrect or inappropriate.

The nurse must practice the following actions: To clarify the order, speak with the ordering professional: When a nurse has questions or concerns regarding a drug order, they should get in touch with the ordering practitioner. Patient safety is promoted and full knowledge of the order is ensured.

If the nurse decides not to provide the medication, C. inform the ordering practitioner: The nurse should inform the ordering practitioner of her choice if, after thorough deliberation and consultation, she decides that the drug is inappropriate or contraindicated.

here is the complete question: If a nurse has reason to believe a medication order is inaccurate or contraindicated, the Standards of Nursing Practice require the nurse to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A. consult with the ordering practitioner to clarify the order.

B. give the medication as ordered and document concerns in the medical record.

C. tell the ordering practitioner if the nurse decide not to give the medication.

D. collaborate with other members f the health care team for more information about the medication and why it was ordered.

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Kevin recently fell in the kitchen and Injured one of his joints. However, Kevin knew that he had suffered a strain and not a sprain because there
was no what?
OA bruising
OB. blood
OC. pain
OD. abrasions

Answers

The correct answer is: A) bruising.

1. Discuss Clonal Selection Theory in human physiology and its application

in Rubeola Infection in a 6-year-old child.

2. Explain the following concepts in human physiology and cite clinical

instances, where applicable;

a. Immunological Tolerance

b. Hypersensitivity Reaction ​

Answers

Answer:

1-Clonal selection is the specific replication of some point lymphocytes that have the antibodies and receptors for a certain antigen, this is what is sought in response to measles disease, since the inoculation of the vaccine causes the first infection to of with the inactive injection of the virus without generating disease (active acquired immunity, since we do not inoculate the synthetic antibody, but it is manufactured by the body). Thus, the second infection caused by the measles virus in the 6-year-old child does not become ill because it replicates to those lymphocytes that have the specific antibody for this virus thanks to the vaccine (clonal selection).

Explanation:

Regarding immunological tolerance and hypersensitivity reactions, it can be said that they are opposite situations in the world of immunology.

The immune tolerance is the null reaction of the defense before an antigen but not the absence of the defense, that is to say that it remains activated in a balanced way without decreasing or increasing when presenting a certain antigen, a clinical case before this is people who are people tolerances to lactose or bee pollen, these two chemical compounds would be the antigens tolerated without genera react to consumption or inhale.

On the other hand, on the other hand we have hypersensitivity reactions that are an increase in the immune response and sometimes it is even excessive, causing the death of the patient through anaphylactic shock.

Hypersensitivity is classified into 1 2 3 and 4, thus drafting different immunological situations such as hypersensitivity to antigens, organs, transplants, and even components of the body.

A very traditional case of hypersensitivity is people who can eat strawberries or nutmeg to trigger glottis edema that prevents them from air permeability, this clinical picture is pathological and, on the other hand, immune tolerance is not.

Coordination of the balance in the body movement is controlled by the?
Cerebellum
The bodies functions that occur without conscious effort are related by the BLANK nervous system.
Autonomic
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the?
Cerebellum and Brain.
The cervical spine is composed of BLANK vertebra.
7
The BLANK contains about 75% of the brain's total volume.
Cerebrum
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Coccygeal.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
Epinephrine
The BLANK is the best-protected part of the C.N.S. and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory system.
Brain Stem
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (C.S.F.) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by:
Acting as shock absorbers for the brain and spinal cord.
The BLANK nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Peripheral
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
Spinal Canal
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
Dura Mater
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
Somatic
What nerve carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
Sensory Nerve
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
Immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in title volume. The most appropriate airway management for her includes:
Assisting ventilations at an age appropriate rate
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
Bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
An indicator of and expanding intercranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have:
An accompanying spinal injury.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
Retrograde Amnesia
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
It interferes with your assessment of the airway.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following.
C.S.F leakage from the ears.
Combative behavior.
Decreased sensory function.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following:
Mastoid process bruising.
Ecchymosis around the eyes.
Noted deformity to the skull.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulses. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
Instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a G.C.S score of:
14
Laceration to the scalp:
Maybe an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (G.C.S.) is used to assess:
Eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response.
The ideal procedure for moving in injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
The Log Roll.
The most common in serious complication of a significant head injury is:
Cerebral Edema.
When assessing a conscious patient with an M.O.I. that suggests spinal injury, you should:
Determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should:
Place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:
Ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
When immobilizing a trauma patients spine, the E.M.T. manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
The patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, you should use the:
Jaw-Thrust Maneuver.

Answers

Answer:

Cerebellum

Explanation:

1. There are 3 zones of "Space and Awareness". Please select the three zones:

Answers

Answer:
Middle zone , outer zone & inner zone.

The three zones of space and awareness are given below:

The outer zone.The middle zone.The inner zone.

What do you mean by Awareness?

Awareness may be defined as a quality of understanding the exact situation of some problematic conditions and knowing their own responsibilities.

The three zones of awareness are proposed from the Gestalt therapy traditions. The outer zone involves the sense of perception through the external environment.

The middle zone governs your thoughts and mental processes. While the inner zone comprises physical sensations and emotions within the body.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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120 tablets with directions to take two tablets twice a day. What is the day supply?

Answers

That is a 30 day supply

Answer:

30

Hope I helped

An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?

Answers

I can only provide some general insights, so it's important to note that I am not a lawyer, and legal cases can vary depending on jurisdiction and specific circumstances. In a situation where the biological father of a child born through in vitro fertilization (IVF) is different from the intended father, complex legal and ethical considerations arise.

1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.

2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.

3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.

Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.

It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.

you've found out that the child you or your wife carriers has the gene for dwarfism. a new therapy exists that may repair this gene before the child is born. what do you do?​

Answers

Since this is an opinionated question :
I wouldn’t do it. Trying something new can be risky.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
b. Assist the client into a knee-chest position to manage postoperative discomfort.
c. Maintain strict bed rest for the first 48 hours postoperative.
d. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position if clear drainage is noted on the dressing.a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.

Answers

The action which a nurse should take when taking care of a patient who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion is:

Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.

The correct answer choice is option a.

What is meant by laminectomy?

Laminectomy refers to surgical procedure which creates an opening by way of removing tissues concerned with arthritis of the spine. However, this help to allow the passages of substances to be removed from the spine.

From the context of the task given above, it is expedient that a well trained healthcare provider monitors the perception of the lower extremities of patient with such health condition in order to help manage while caring for him or her.

In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a client with such health condition needs to be monitored properly.

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Although _____ studied the digestive system of dogs, he is best known for his pioneering work on classical conditioning

Answers

I believe it’s Ivan Pavlov.

How many people have successfully quit using amphetamines?

Help Please. provide statistics

Answers

Answer:

1.Heroin and prescription painkillers

2.Cocaine

3.Methamphetamine & Crystal Meth

4.Benzodiazepines

5.Nicotine

6.Alcohol

The nurse is preparing to administer morphine iv to a client with multiple trauma. before administering the morphine, what common adverse effect should the nurse inform the client about?

Answers

Before administering morphine IV to a client with multiple trauma, the nurse should inform the client about the common adverse effect of respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a potentially serious side effect of morphine and other opioid medications, as it can lead to inadequate oxygenation of the body's tissues.

Other common adverse effects of morphine that the nurse may also want to discuss with the client include:

Sedation or drowsiness

Constipation

Nausea and vomiting

Dizziness or lightheadedness

Itching or rash

Confusion

It is essential for healthcare providers to educate clients about potential side effects and monitor for signs of respiratory depression or other adverse reactions when administering opioid medications like morphine.

g Cardiovascular diseases include all of the following EXCEPT Group of answer choices Hypertension Stroke Coronary heart disease Diabetes

Answers

Cardiovascular diseases include a variety of conditions that affect the heart and blood vessels. All of the following are considered cardiovascular diseases EXCEPT diabetes, including hypertension.

To clarify:

1. Hypertension - This is a cardiovascular disease involving high blood pressure, which can damage blood vessels and increase the risk of heart disease and stroke.
2. Stroke - This is a cardiovascular event caused by a disruption of blood flow to the brain, leading to brain cell death.
3. Coronary heart disease - This is a cardiovascular disease involving the narrowing of the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart muscle.

Diabetes, on the other hand, is a metabolic condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. While it can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular diseases, it is not considered a cardiovascular disease itself.

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What equipment is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient? a) Test tubes or sterile ampules O b) Petri dishes and sterile droppers c) Sterile syringes or graduated cylinders d) Measuring cups and clean, warm water

Answers

Petri dishes and sterile droppers is generally used to make lyophilized medications suitable for administering to the patient.

How might nonverbal communication play a role in the way you deliver your news?
Note: Examples of nonverbal communication include body language, facial expressions, eye contact,
proximity and/or physical contact, eye-rolling.

Answers

Nonverbal communication plays an important role in the way one deliver anyone's news because it sends strong messages.

What is nonverbal communication?

There are two sides to every nonverbal exchange. Patients' body language conveys a range of emotions. Instead than taking the patient's spoken comments at face value, you can elicit more information by paying attention to their nonverbal signs.

Importance of nonverbal communication ;  

Nonverbal communication aids in relationship development, provides hints to unsaid worries and feelings, and supports or contradicts our verbal statements. In a medical interview, nonverbal cues are particularly important if they conflict with the message being conveyed verbally.

Examples of Nonverbal communication ; Making use of eye contactUsing hand gesturesUsing any part of the body to indicate somethingMaking use of sign languageReasons why Non-verbal communication can be used include ;If one or both persons are deafIf one or both persons do not speak the same language, etc

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Natasha is a toxicologist. During an investigation, she collected blood from the subjects arm. What type of blood specimen is it?

Answers

Answer:D.  

antemortem

Explanation:

1 tablet, 3x per day 360 dispensed how many days will this prescription last

Answers

Answer: 120 days
In order to solve this we need a equation
3x=360, we do inverse operation 360/3=120

The tablets prescription will last  120 days.

If a patient is expected to take 1 tablets 3 times per day which is morning, afternoon and evening in which 360 tablets where dispensed to the patient which means that prescription will last  for 120 days calculated using this formula:

Usage days= Tablets dispensed/Tablets per day

Let plug in the formula

Usage days=360 Tablets/1 tablets*3 per day

Usage days=360 Tablets/3

Usage days=120 days

In conclusion the prescription will last for 120 days.

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Which parasite affects foals and causes a cough and poor body condition?
Select one:

a.
ascarids

b.
pinworms

c.
small strongyles

d.
tapeworms

Answers

Answer:  B -Pinworm parasite

Acategorical term for a word part that is added to a root word to change or modify its meaning is called a(n)
A word part added to the beginning of a word and that is often used to indicate location, time, or present status is
called an)
A word part that is added to the ending of a root word to form a new term is called the
A root word with an added vowel at the end that makes it easier to pronounce is called a

Acategorical term for a word part that is added to a root word to change or modify its meaning is called

Answers

1) both prefix and suffix (affix)
2) prefix
3) suffix
4)combing form

the nurse on the pediatric medical unit is admitting a school-age child from the emergency department. the child's chart entry reads: progress notes july 25, 2019 1445 parent reports client has had no urine output for 18 hours. bladder scan reveals 0 ml residual urine. pulse 98/bpm and irregular; blood pressure 78/38 mmhg. client reports abdominal pain described as 'cramps.' bilateral muscle weakness noted. after reviewing the client's potassium level of 5.8 meq/l (5.8 mmol/l), the nurse should anticipate an order for what intervention?

Answers

The nurse should anticipate an order for administration of a medication to lower the potassium level (hypokalemia) in the child's body.

Based on the client's symptoms and laboratory findings, such as decreased urine output, low blood pressure, irregular pulse, and high potassium level, the child is likely experiencing hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). To address this condition, the nurse should anticipate an order for a medication that helps lower the potassium level in the body. This intervention aims to restore normal potassium levels, which can help alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain, muscle weakness, and irregular heart rhythm. By administering the appropriate medication, the nurse can effectively manage the child's hyperkalemia and promote their overall well-being.

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Which test do physicians use to monitor the insulin dose for a diabetic patient?
A) urinalysis
B) postprandial blood sugar test
C) fructosamine test
D) radioiodine uptake assay


(answer is B for edmentum)

Answers

Answer:

My answer is ;

C) fructosamine test

Explanation:

This test  measures the  average blood glucose level of the patient for over  two to three weeks.

An example of a transition is ____________ now that we’ve thoroughly examined how these two medications are similar to one another, we can consider the many clear differences between the two medications.

Answers

Now that we've thoroughly examined how these two medications are similar to one another, we can consider the many clear differences between them. An example of a transition to do this would be to compare and contrast the two medications.

To start, we can look at the active ingredients in each medication and determine how they are different. We can also look at the potential side effects and risks associated with each drug to understand the differences between them. Finally, we can explore the potential uses of each medication, as well as the recommended dosages and contraindications. By examining each medication in this way, we can gain a clear understanding of the differences between the two.

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Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about immunizations?

Answers

(Just wanna let you know nothing is shown)

the term _____ applies to either middle childhood or preadolescence. teenage adolescence preteen childhood school-age

Answers

The term "school-age" applies to either middle childhood or preadolescence. In this context, middle childhood typically refers to children aged 6 to 11 years old, while preadolescence refers to children aged 9 to 14 years old.

Both of these stages occur before the teenage years, which are commonly associated with adolescence (ages 13 to 19). During middle childhood and preadolescence, children attend school and experience significant cognitive, social, and emotional development.During this time, children are typically developing important cognitive, emotional, social, and physical skills and abilities that will help prepare them for adolescence and adulthood.Cognitively, school-age children are developing their ability to think logically and solve problems, and are expanding their knowledge in areas such as language, math, and science. Emotionally, they are learning to regulate their emotions and form deeper relationships with peers and adults. Socially, they are developing a sense of identity and learning important social skills such as cooperation, communication, and conflict resolution. Physically, they are growing rapidly and developing gross and fine motor skills, as well as coordination and balance.

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when the body is in contact with an allergen, this lymphocyte, located in the respiratory and intestinal mucosa, triggers the release of histamine. choose that lymphocyte.

Answers

When our body gets contact with an allergen, a lymphocyte triggers the release of histamine. This lymphocyte is often called: an IgE.

What is IgE and what do they do to allergens?

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is a type of antibody that is produced by the T lymphocytes. It is responsible to defend our body from allergens such as invading bacteria, viruses, and toxins. When our body gets contact with an allergen, the T lymphocyte produces IgE that triggers the release of histamine to mediate allergic reactions. It aims to alert our body about an allergen that is coming in. The allergic reactions following the release of histamine because of IgE could result in: skin reddening, swelling, wheezing, coughing, itchy red rash or hives, tingling in the mouth, etc.

This question seems incomplete. The complete options for this question are as follows:

“When the body is in contact with an allergen, this lymphocyte, located in the respiratory and intestinal mucosa, triggers the release of histamine. Choose that lymphocyte!

a. IgAb. IgDc. IgEd. IgG"

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Automated hematology procedures have many advantages over manual methods list five of these advantages

Answers

Answer:

What are the celluar components of blood? erythrocytes ... Hemoglobin..serves to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide through the body. Upgrade ... Which cell type is most numerous? ... What is the difference between Wintrobe method and Westergen method? ... List five advantages of Automated hematology procedures.

Explanation:

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What percentage of goldfish will have lengths between 4. 6 inches and 9. 4 inches? 34% 68% 95% 99. 7%. Fill in the blankA square matrix is not invertible if at least one of its eigenvalues is _____________________.A square matrix A of order n is diagonalizable if A has ___ linearly independent cigenvectors.A square matrix A of order n has n distinct cigenvalues, then A is ________________.A square matrix A is diagonalizable if the geometric multiplicity is equal to the _______ for every cigenvalue.Any bases for a vector space have the same _________________ of vectors.If A is a matrix with n columns, then rank (A) + ________________ =n.The basis for the column space of A is determined by the columns contain _________________.If dim(V) = n and suppose a subset B of V has exactly n vectors, then B is a basis if either B is linearly independent or __________________.W is a subspace of V if ___________ E W for all vectors u, v E V and _______________ E W for all vectors u E W and scalars k which set does square 7 belong to? integers and irrational numbers irrational and real numbers real and rational numbers rational and whole numbers The March of Dimes.1.was founded by President Franklin D. Roosevelt2.was founded in response to the polio epidemic3.today, focuses on prevention of birth defects and reducing infant mortality4.All of the above constantine believes that development takes place in stages. this belief is consistent with the view of development. Someone drops a book on the floor, and it makes a loud noise. At that time, you turn to look at the person who dropped the book. The loud noise is an example of aA. HydrotropismB. StimulusC. ResponseD. Phototropism For each of the following situations, identify whether there is a shift in demand or supply (oreven if there is one), and note the effects on equilibrium price and quantity. Support youranswers with a graph. (if u don't want to do graphs please give me idea about shift in demand/supply and equillibrium)1. The National Weather Service announces suddenly that there is going to be a tropical storm that will make landfall in Key West next week! What is the effect on the market for batteries?2. The Maryland Department of Environmental Management announces that the improved water conditions have led to an increase in the number of blue crabs in the Chesapeake Bay! What is the effect on the market for crab cakes?3. Netflix suddenly announces that it is going to increase the basic monthly subscription fee permanently from $8.99 to $9.99! What is the effect on the market for Netflix? What is the effect on the market for DVDs?4. It is announced with Forbes that Delta Airlines (DAL) is purchasing United Airlines (UAL) and merging with them. What is the effect on the market for Delta airlines stock?5. Lifespan Finance, the largest employer in the state of Rhode Island, announces that it will raise the annual salaries for all its employees 18% this year! What is the effect on the market for canned vegetables in Rhode Island? What is the effect on the market for fresh vegetables in Rhode Island? Discuss the strengths and drawbacks of WS-* and RESTful web services. Compare their architectural principles. Which one is the preferred mechanism for communicating with Amazon S3 I need help thank you write down a question about human behavior that is interesting to you and why are you interested in this questionnow think about psychology how is your question related to this definition that is what is it about your question that makes it own psychology can address Please actually help! blue pirate is a aa rated company, and orange sails is a bb rated company. which of the following is most likely to be true? orange sails is more likely to default on its debt than blue pirates blue pirate's bonds are likely to have a higher yield-to-maturity orange sails is a poorly managed company blue pirate is a better company to invest in blue pirate will not default a key member clause is a clause in a recording contract that binds key members to all terms of the contract individually as well as as members of the group. Kansas Pizza Pantry opened its first restaurant in Lawrence, Kansas in 1985. Almost immediately after the first location opened, it expanded from Kansas Pizza Pantry to more than 250 locations in more than 30 states and 11 countries. Kansas Pizza Pantry completed an initial public offering in August 2000. Several years ago, Silver Capital completed the acquisition of Kansas Pizza Pantry and, as a result of the acquisition, the company's common stock is no longer publicly traded.KANSAS PIZZA PANTRY, INC., AND SUBSIDIARIESConsolidated Statements of Operations(amounts in thousands, except for per share data)Year 3Year 2Year 1Revenues:Restaurant sales$633,106$652,685$665,616Royalties from licensing agreement6,7228,2396,580Domestic franchise revenues4,2002,9342,757International franchise revenues3,1532,1782,121Total revenues647,181666,036677,074Costs and expenses:Food, beverage and paper supplies149,732155,181165,526Labor237,383247,850247,276Direct operating and occupancy142,920142,473140,367Cost of sales530,035545,504553,169General and administrative50,83151,04151,642Depreciation and amortization37,15640,33140,299Pre-opening costs3,3691,8934,478Loss on impairment of property and equipment18,95223,44113,336Store closure costs1,7585641,033Litigation, settlement and other costs8,9091,659736Total costs and expenses651,010664,433664,693Operating (loss)/income(6,279)3,30312,381Interest expense, net(26)(783)(1,324)(Loss)/income before income tax (benefit)/provision(6,305)2,52011,057Income tax (benefit)/provision(5,239)(2,141)2,395Net (loss)/income$(1,066)$4,661$8,662Net (loss)/income per common share:Basic$(0.07)$0.19$0.34Diluted$(0.07)$0.19$0.34Weighted average shares used in calculating net (loss)/income per common share:Basic24,73824,56425,193Diluted24,73824,39325,211KANSAS PIZZA PANTRY, INC., AND SUBSIDIARIESConsolidated Balance Sheets(in thousands, except for share data)Year 3Year 2AssetsCurrent assets:Cash and cash equivalents$14,465$23,724Other receivables12,84413,041Inventories6,4276,557Current deferred tax asset, net8,6757,576Prepaid rent3065,957Other prepaid expenses2,8182,281Total current assets45,53559,136Property and equipment, net242,446256,416Noncurrent deferred tax asset, net22,60125,511Goodwill4,7224,872Other intangibles, net5,0874,964Other assets8,8137,409Total assets$329,204$358,308Liabilities and stockholders equityCurrent liabilities:Accounts payable$17,675$11,763Accrued compensation and benefits23,92323,701Accrued rent21,17420,287Deferred rent credits4,3584,245Other accrued liabilities14,19011,915Gift card liability14,87721,140Store closure reserve79351Total current liabilities96,27693,402Long-term debt---22,800Other liabilities9,9868,728Deferred rent credits, net of current portion33,67732,978Income taxes payable, net of current portion32910,125Commitments and contingencies--Stockholders equity:Common stock$0.01 par value, 80,050,000 sharesauthorized, 27,100,000 and 26,700,000 shares issued and outstanding at end of Year 3, and Year 2, respectively271267Additional paid-in capital174,563174,500Retained earnings14,10215,508Total stockholders equity188,936190,275Total liabilities and stockholders equity$329,204$358,308Required:Compute the following ratios for Year 3 using information from the company annual report that was issued before Kansas Pizza Pantry was acquired. Assume a market price per share of $1.26.(Round your answers to 2 decimal places. Enter percentage answers rounded to 2 decimal places (i.e. 0.1234 should be entered as 12.34). Negative amounts should be indicated by a minus sign.)Ratios are: Return on equity, Net profit margin, Inventory turnover, Current ratio, Quick Ratio, Debt-to equity ratio, Price/earnings ratio. Rules of behavior that are defined both formally and informally are ________. law folkways mores norms Which is a characteristic of the part of the atom marked"A"?It contains most of the mass.It is negatively chargedIt is mostly empty space.It is composed of electrons. In the preface to the 1855 edition of leaves of grass, whitman states "the united states themselves are essentially the greatest poem." what does he cite to support his opinion? o a. the rhythmic speech patterns of americans o b. americans' respect for literary traditions c. his own popularity as an american poet o d. the vitality and diversity of americans Write the equation of the line in slope intercept form that passes through the two points: (1,-6) and (-3,2)Please explain so I can understand this IBM CompanyHave a look at their CSR report:A) How many aspects does it cover from the list suggested in "The CSR Report Checklist Every Company Needs"?B) Do you think the report is convincing? Why? 1 2/15 + -3 1/2 in simplest form Which website would most likely have reliable information about the poison ivy plant?www.resourceallamericanplants.orgwww.wellnessblog/poisonivy/2010www.scientificuniversity.edu/plantswww.treatpoisonivy.co