fractures are very common injuries. a fracture which breaks the bone but no soft tissue injury is called

Answers

Answer 1

When a fracture occurs but there is no soft tissue injury, it is called a simple or closed fracture.

A fracture is a crack or break in the bone, caused by an injury. This may be caused by a fall, a blow, or a sudden impact. A bone can fracture in different ways, ranging from a slight crack to a complete break or multiple breaks. Fractures are frequent injuries. There are many types of fractures, each with its own set of signs and symptoms. It is essential to receive treatment for a fracture since a bone that is not properly set and mended may result in long-term issues.

There are various types of fractures, some of which are:

Open (compound) fracture: A fracture that breaks the skin is known as an open fracture. This might make the bone protrude out of the skin.

Simple (closed) fracture: A fracture that does not break the skin is referred to as a simple or closed fracture. The bone is broken, but the skin is not torn.

Greenstick fracture: This is a type of fracture that mostly affects children. The bone is bent but not completely broken. It is referred to as a “greenstick” fracture since it resembles a green twig that has been bent and partially broken. Oblique fracture: An oblique fracture is one that occurs at an angle.

Transverse fracture: A transverse fracture is one that breaks straight across the bone, like a clean break.

Spiral fracture: A spiral fracture is one that winds around the bone. This type of fracture is frequently seen in athletes who are struck while their foot is planted on the ground, causing the bone to twist.

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Related Questions

You notice that one of your coworkers is disposing of contaminated materials in the regular trash. You have seen her throw away her gloves, blood-soaked gauze, and tubes of blood in the trash receptacle that is used for paper products and other regular waste. What effect could your coworker's actions have on other employees and explain how the employee should have disposed of the contaminated materials mentioned above:

Answers

Answer:

The coworker can potentially kill her other coworkers!!!

Explanation:

Because the materials that were said in the question (You have seen her throw away her gloves, blood-soaked gauze, and tubes of blood in the trash receptacle that is used for paper products and other regular waste) could have a potential disease because they were CONTAMINATED.

This incorrect disposal of hospital waste can cause contamination of other professionals and patients within the hospital, and also contaminate the workers of garbage collection.

What are the dangers of medical waste?

The greatest risk of this type of waste is infectious waste, which is characterized by the presence of contaminants

With this information we can conclude that this incorrect disposal of hospital waste can cause contamination of other professionals and patients within the hospital, and also contaminate the workers of garbage collection.

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Enulose 10g/15mL Sig: 2 tbsp po bid x 3d - how many ml is the patient taking per day?

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The volume of the medication in mL the patient is taking per day is 90 mL.

What does the expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d mean?

The above expression is a dosage of the medication.

The expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d means that 2 tablespoonfuls of the medication are to be taken by mouth 3 times daily.

The volume of 1 tablespoonful in mL = 15 ml

The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL will be 15 ml * 2

The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL = 30 mL

The medication is to be taken 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily

The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 30 mL * 3

The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 90 mL

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Reflect on strategies for personal awareness,

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Specifically, mindfulness meditation is one of the best ways to learn more about how your thoughts work. When you practice watching and observing our thoughts without attaching to them or thinking about them, you begin to realize a powerful idea: You are not your thoughts.

Mammals have the following characteristics, they Group of answer choices are homiotherms are mostly viviparous have mammary glands all of the above

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All of the above. Mammals exhibit the characteristics of being homiothermic (maintaining a constant internal body temperature), mostly viviparous (giving birth to live young), and possessing mammary glands for milk production.

Mammals possess several characteristic features that distinguish them from other animal groups. The given options correctly describe these characteristics, and the correct answer is "all of the above."

Homiotherms: Mammals are homiothermic, meaning they can maintain a relatively constant internal body temperature, regardless of external environmental conditions. This ability allows mammals to thrive in various habitats and adapt to different climates.

Mostly Viviparous: Most mammals give birth to live young through viviparous reproduction. They have internal fertilization, with the embryo developing inside the mother's body until it is ready for birth. However, there are exceptions, such as monotremes (e.g., platypus, echidna), which lay eggs, and a few species of marsupials that practice pouch incubation.

Mammary Glands: Mammals are named after their defining characteristic: the presence of mammary glands. These glands produce milk, which is the primary source of nutrition for their offspring. Milk production is a distinguishing feature of mammals and is essential for nurturing and nourishing their young.

Mammals exhibit the characteristics of being homiothermic (maintaining a constant internal body temperature), mostly viviparous (giving birth to live young), and possessing mammary glands for milk production. These characteristics collectively differentiate mammals from other animal groups. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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what is the role of nurse​

Answers

Answer:

a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions

they are responsible for the holistic care of patients

Explanation:

Explanation:

A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.

What are three do's and three don'ts of weight lifting?

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

Which of the following in hypothesized to be aconsequence of or related to maternal-fetal conflict
A. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
B. Low Testosteorne
C. Mensturation
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: D. Preeclampsia

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:Preeclampsia is one high blood pressure (hypertension) disorder that can occur during pregnancy. Other disorders can happen, too: Gestational hypertension is high blood pressure that begins after 20 weeks without problems in the kidneys or other organs. Some women with gestational hypertension may develop preeclampsia.

Which of the following target the sympathetic control of the micturituion cycle? anticholinergics that contract the detrusof drugs that relax the pelvic floor in the final stage of the micturition reflex cycle drugs that improve the storage of urine by relaxing or expanding the detrusor adrenergics that contract the detrusor

Answers

Anticholinergics that contract the detrusor and adrenergics that contract the detrusor target the sympathetic control of the micturition cycle.

These drugs work by activating sympathetic receptors and promoting the contraction of the detrusor muscle, which is involved in bladder emptying.

Anticholinergics are medications that inhibit the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for bladder contractions. By blocking cholinergic receptors, anticholinergics promote sympathetic activity and increase the contraction of the detrusor muscle, facilitating bladder emptying.

Similarly, adrenergics stimulate sympathetic receptors, leading to detrusor contraction and aiding in the micturition process.

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Which of the following is not required by the employer following an exposure incident to human blood or OPIM?

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After an exposure episode involving human blood or OPIM, the employer does not demand a yearly physical. The exposed employee must be referred to a qualified healthcare provider by the dental employer.

This refers to a person who is authorized to independently offer the post-exposure evaluation and follow-up services demanded by the standard and is in possession of the necessary licensing under the laws of the state where they conduct business. The medical practitioner will provide the patient advice on what happened and how to stop any potential illness from spreading further. The qualified healthcare provider will also assess any disease that has been reported to see if the signs and symptoms could point to an infection with the HIV virus or the hepatitis B virus.

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The complete question is:


Which of the following is not required by the employer following an exposure incident to human blood or OPIM?

An annual medical physical.

Immediately wash the exposed area with soap and water (or use an eye wash for 15 minutes).

Seek medical follow-up at the designated emergency healthcare location.

beta blockers are a class of drugs used to regulate heart rate what effect would a b blocker have on blood pressure

Answers

Answer: The blood pressure would be lowered due to B blockers causing the heart to beat more slowly.

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In examining a Wright's stained blood smear of a patient who has had a splenectomy, one would most likely also find:

Answers

Answer:

peripheral blood smear

Explanation:

wright's stain is a hematologic stain that facitates the differentiation of blood cell types.It is used primarily to stain peripheral blood smears.

A physician assistant orders 500 mL of D5NS over 5 hours. How many milliliters per hour will the patient receive? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Answers

Answer:

The patient will receive 100 milliliters per hour.

Explanation:

Milliliter is the unit of measurement that refers to the thousandth part of a liter, that is, 1 liter has 1000 milliliters. In addition, the milliliter has the acronym mL, so when the question above states that the patient should receive 500 mL in 5 hours, it means that he should receive 500 milliliters in 5 hours.

To know then, how many milliliters it will receive in each hour, we must divide 500 by 5. The result will be 100 mL per hour.

 the association between night shift work and nutrition patterns among nurses: a literature review.

Answers

The relationship between night workers' eating habits and diet quality is that it has an temporal brain side impact on how food is distributed in time.

The night laborer's must remain up the entire night if we are talking about them. This explains why we would expect to see a variety of eating patterns in them. Their daily schedule differs from that of typical day workers as well.

Typically, their shift ends at six in the morning. They would then go to bed for a sound sleep or would get ready, eat a little meal, and then take a siesta. Additionally, their bedtimes varied. As a result, food is ingested at the wrong time.

Our digestion process will change if food is ingested slowly and takes longer than usual. Only in the afternoon will heavier foods be a part of their diet. Some people follow a diet that involves eating until their stomachs are empty both during the day and at night.

They will have different nutritional habits since they will eat more carbohydrates. Others consume a diet that includes fibre, proteins, and carbohydrates.

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A 68-year-old female who was admitted with shortness of breath. On your arrival, the patient appears drowsy and is on 10L of oxygen via a mask.

You perform an ABG, which reveals the following results:

• PaO2: 52.5 mmHg
• pH: 7.29
• PaCO2: 68 mmHg
• HCO3–: 26
What does the ABG show:
Oxygenation (PaO2):
pH:
PaCO2:
HCO3–:
Interpretation:

What symptoms or signs are associated with hypercapnia (↑CO2)?

Answers

Answer:

Arterial blood gas (ABG) results from a 68-year-old woman with difficulty breathing show:

Oxygenation (PaO₂): hypoxemia pH: acidosis PaCO₂: Hypercapnia HCO₃⁻: normal

whose interpretation is: respiratory acidosis.

Hypercapnia can produce symptoms such as confusion, drowsiness or lethargy, headache, nausea and vomiting and, in severe states, can cause severe unconsciousness and coma.

Explanation:

Respiratory acidosis is due to a failure in the breathing process that produces hypoventilation, decreasing the partial pressure of oxygen (PaO₂) —hypoxemia— and increasing the partial pressure of CO₂ (PaCO₂), called hypercapnia.

Acidosis is the result of the accumulation of CO₂ in the body, which is reflected as a decrease in pH below 7.35, with no change in bicarbonate content.Hypoxemia is the decrease of PaO₂ below 60 mmHg.Hypercapnia is the increase of PaCO₂ in ABG above 45 mmHg.Normal bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) values range from 22 to 28 mEq/L in ABG. This compound can be altered in metabolic acidosis.

Hypercapnia mainly affects the nervous system, producing symptoms that alter the state of consciousness of the affected, also producing headache and even nausea and vomiting.

what medical ethics principle other than autonomy would you use to argue that abortion is permissible for a 16 year old girl that is not ready to have a baby and does not have the money to support the baby.

Answers

To argue that abortion is permissible for a 16-year-old girl who is not ready to have a baby and does not have the financial means to support the baby, a medical ethics principle other than autonomy that could be used is the principle of beneficence.


Beneficence is an ethical principle that emphasizes promoting the well-being and best interests of the patient. In this case, considering the girl's situation, the principle of beneficence supports the argument for abortion as a permissible option.

1. The well-being of the girl: Bringing an unwanted child into the world can have negative consequences for the girl's physical and mental health. It may hinder her educational and career opportunities, potentially leading to long-term consequences. By considering the girl's well-being, the principle of beneficence supports the option of abortion as it prioritizes her best interests.

2. The well-being of the potential child: If the girl is not ready to have a baby and lacks the financial means to support a child, it is reasonable to consider the potential child's well-being as well. Raising a child in difficult circumstances may not provide the child with the best possible life. The principle of beneficence suggests that it is better to prevent a child from being born into unfavorable conditions than to subject them to a challenging upbringing.

3. The greater societal impact: Unplanned pregnancies, particularly among teenagers, can have a significant impact on society as a whole. By allowing a 16-year-old girl to make an informed decision about her reproductive choices, we can reduce the potential strain on social welfare systems and help ensure that resources are allocated more efficiently to those who are better prepared to care for a child.

It is important to note that the application of the principle of beneficence should always be balanced with other ethical considerations, such as the potential long-term psychological effects of abortion on the girl and the ethical concerns related to the rights of the unborn fetus. These considerations should be carefully weighed and discussed in a comprehensive ethical analysis of the situation.

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Which of the following considerations is relevant to a person whose elderly parents are sick but refuse to make an appointment at the doctor? Which days of the week are appointments available? Who has treated their illnesses in the past? Is it her place to make decisions for her parents? Does she have medical expertise?

Answers

A good question to ask in such as case is; ""who has treated their illnesses in the past?"

Medical care for the elderly is very sensitive. Most elderly people are very choosy when it pertains to who or where they receive medical care. Many times, this is as a result of past experiences.

Hence, a good question to ask when  a person whose elderly parents are sick but refuse to make an appointment at the doctor is "who has treated their illnesses in the past".

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which professional organization evaluates a new dental material

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The American Dental Association (ADA) is a recognised professional organisation that assesses novel dental materials.The field of dentistry has advanced significantly over the past few decades, enabling dental practitioners to offer patients top-notch oral health care thanks to innovative materials, methods, and technologies.

Professional organisations carry out significant study and testing to make sure the materials used in dental operations are secure, dependable, and efficient. The American Dental Association (ADA) is one such group.In the US, the ADA is a professional association that represents nearly 163,000 dentists. It is in charge of testing new dental goods and materials to make sure that patients can use them safely. The ADA employs a stringent testing procedure, including clinical trials, laboratory testing, and scientific research, to assess new dental materials. Dental adhesives, cements, bonding agents, impression materials, and restorative materials are just a few of the many dental products that are evaluated by the ADA.

A group of dental experts that work for the organisation create and execute criteria for the assessment of dental materials. These requirements aid in ensuring that dentists employ safe and reliable supplies in their offices. Dental items that satisfy the ADA's requirements for effectiveness and safety are given the renowned Seal of Acceptance certification. The effectiveness and safety of products that have received the ADA Seal of Acceptance have been verified via testing and evaluation. The American Dental Association (ADA) is an expert organisation that assesses new dental materials to make sure they are secure and efficient for patients. The organisation has established guidelines that dental professionals use to make sure they are utilising safe and efficient materials in their practises. It also uses a rigorous testing approach to evaluate dental materials.

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Antidepressant drugs that work by allowing serotonin and norepinephrine to remain at the synapse for a longer period of time are ________ .

Answers

Antidepressant drugs that work by allowing serotonin and norepinephrine to remain at the synapse for a longer period of time are reuptake inhibitors.

Antidepressant drugs work by increasing the levels of specific neurotransmitters in the brain that are often lower in people who have depression. The most commonly prescribed antidepressants are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs).Reuptake inhibitors block the activity of the neurotransmitter transporter, preventing the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine and thus allowing more of these neurotransmitters to remain in the synapse for a longer period of time, which increases the likelihood that they will bind to their receptors.

Antidepressant drugs are classified according to the way they work on the brain's chemical messengers, called neurotransmitters. There are several types of antidepressant medications, and they work in different ways to relieve symptoms of depression. Some of the most common types of antidepressant medications include: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)Norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitors (NDRIs)Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)Atypical antidepressantsTricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).

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for the next test cycle, another idea is to have nurse peters test the phq-9 form again with five english-speaking patients in one afternoon. this time, a back-up nurse will be available who can step in if nurse peters has to leave for any reason. what do you think of this idea?

Answers

The idea of having Nurse Peters test the PHQ-9 form again with five English-speaking patients in one afternoon, while having a back-up nurse available, is a practical approach to ensure continuity and efficiency in administering the tests.

Having Nurse Peters administer the PHQ-9 form with the support of a back-up nurse is a sound idea for several reasons.

Firstly, by conducting the tests in one afternoon, it allows for a concentrated and focused effort, maximizing the use of resources and minimizing disruptions to patient schedules. Secondly, having a back-up nurse available provides a contingency plan in case Nurse Peters is unable to complete the tests due to unforeseen circumstances. This ensures that the testing process can continue smoothly without significant delays or the need to reschedule appointments. Additionally, having the same nurse administer the tests again helps maintain consistency in the approach, minimizing potential variations in instructions or interactions that could affect the validity and reliability of the results.

Overall, this idea demonstrates a proactive approach to efficiently conduct the tests while accounting for potential challenges that may arise.

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can behavior be considered sexual harassment if someone doesn't intend to be offensive, but another person takes offense

Answers

Answer: Sexual Harassment of a student interferes with a

student’s right to receive an education free from

discrimination.

Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual

nature.

Sexual Harassment Can Be In the Form of:

Verbal Harassment

Non-Verbal Harassment

Physical Harassment

Explanation: •Federal law Title IX of the Education Amendments

of 1972 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex,

including sexual harassment in education

programs and activities.

allowing time in a schedule for emergency appointments is called creating

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation

I guess the answer is false

Which is a factor that influences the development of cardiovascular disease?A. smokingB. growth of bacteriaC. lack of calciumD. sun exposure

Answers

Cardiovascular disease is a condition that affects the heart and blood vessels, and is one of the leading causes of death worldwide. There are many factors that can influence the development of cardiovascular disease, such as smoking, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and diabetes.

Here, all options are correct.

Smoking is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease, as the chemicals in cigarettes can damage the walls of the blood vessels, resulting in atherosclerosis. High blood pressure, high cholesterol, and diabetes can all contribute to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to a narrowing of the blood vessels.

Additionally, an unhealthy diet can also increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, as it can lead to high cholesterol and high blood pressure. Lastly, a lack of physical activity can also increase the risk of cardiovascular disease as it can lead to an unhealthy lifestyle, which can cause weight gain and an increase in risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

Here, all options are correct.

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Neither the experimenter nor the subjects know who is receiving the real treatment or the placebo. This type of study is called.

Answers

Double blind experiment
a double blind experiment

According to the rule of nines, what is the burn percentage of a patient with burns to the front of the torso and the front side of both arms?.

Answers

Answer:

For adults, the rule of nines is: If a person’s injured due to a burn, a doctor may assess them quickly. For example, if they were burned on each hand and arm as well as the front trunk portion of the body, using the rule of nines, they’d estimate the burned area as 36 percent of a person’s body.

Explanation:

The burn percentage is 46%
Torso (chest, abdomen, back, pelvis) 9+9+18+1=37 and front side both arms 4,5+4,5=9; all together 37+9=46(%)

Can someone please explain to me the types of penicillin and what they do? ​

Answers

Answer:

asqwertyuidfghjk

Explanatioqwrtyuopien:n

hhdevrncntuiehwnmn

Explanation:

Penicillin antibiotics were among the first medications to be effective against many bacterial infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci. They are still widely used today, though many types of bacteria have developed resistance following extensive use.

The penicillin class contains five groups of antibiotics: aminopenicillins, antipseudomonal penicillins, beta-lactamase inhibitors, natural penicillins, and the penicillinase resistant penicillins

Penicillin is a widely used antibiotic prescribed to treat staphylococci and streptococci bacterial infections. Penicillin belongs to the beta-lactam family of antibiotics, the members of which use a similar mechanism of action to inhibit bacterial cell growth that eventually kills the bacteria.

Common behaviors that are a result of Alzheimer's disease are

Answers

Answer:

angry outbursts and physical aggression, hand wringing pacing and rocking, accusing loved ones of wrong doing and hallucinating, repeating stories and leaving the house unassisted, sleep problems and sundowing

Explanation:

1, Verbal or physical aggression, which can be quite alarming, is common in patients with Alzheimer’s.

2, Dementia makes it very difficult to process stimuli and new information, causing many people with Alzheimer’s disease to become anxious. 

3, Caregivers may feel at a loss when an Alzheimer’s patient exhibits behavior that is clearly not grounded in reality: either hallucinations—perceiving something that isn’t really there—or delusions, which are false beliefs that can lead to paranoia.

4, The memory problems caused by Alzheimer’s disease can lead to a range of distressing behaviors, including repetition of words or activities, disorientation even in familiar places, and, in severe cases, confusion about the passage of time.

5, It’s not well understood why sleep disturbances occur in many Alzheimer’s patients, but it’s common for them to experience nighttime restlessness and changes to their sleep schedule.

Bacteria are organisms that may be harmful or helpful to the body.

Answers

i believe this is a true or false question? if so the answer is true.
If it’s a true or false question the answer should be true.

Older adults often experience which of the following?


Increased self-identity


Increased sexual activity


Decreased acute illness


Increased productivity

Answers

Probably increased self-identity

Older adults often experience increased self-identity as they age which is denoted as option A.

What is Self identity?

This refers to the ways in which an individual views himself and increases as people get older.

The other options will experience a decrease as people get old which is why self-identity is the most appropriate choice.

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Which organization has Congress legislated to define protectedhealth information (PHI)?How many titles are included in the Public Law104-91? List the four key words that summarize the areas of health carethat HIPAA has addressed. Under HIPAA, delegates from Medical Records Department, PatientAccounts/Business Office, and satellite clinics would receivetraining concerning HIPAA law from what officer?

Answers

The organization that Congress legislated to define protected health information (PHI) is the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). Public Law 104-91 includes 11 titles. The four key words that summarize the areas of healthcare that HIPAA has addressed are privacy, security, transactions, and code sets.

Under HIPAA, delegates from the Medical Records Department, Patient Accounts/Business Office, and satellite clinics would receive training concerning HIPAA law from the Privacy Officer.

Congress legislated the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) to define protected health information (PHI). Public Law 104-91 includes two titles. The four key words summarizing the areas of health care that HIPAA addresses are Privacy, Security, Transactions, and Identifiers.

Under HIPAA, delegates from Medical Records Department, Patient Accounts/Business Office, and satellite clinics would receive training concerning HIPAA law from the Privacy Officer.

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ORDER: A 20 kg dog needs 10 mg/kg of oral doxycycline twice a day for 30 days. Doxycycline is
available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets do you dispense? Show work

Answers

Answer:

Therefore, you would dispense 1,200 tablets of doxycycline for the full 30-day treatment.

Explanation:

The dog weighs 20 kg and needs 10 mg of doxycycline per kg of body weight, so the total dose required is:

20 kg x 10 mg/kg = 200 mg per dose

The dog needs to receive this dose twice a day for 30 days, so the total dose required for the full treatment is:

200 mg x 2 doses x 30 days = 12,000 mg

Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, the total number of tablets required is:

12,000 mg / 10 mg per tablet = 1,200 tablets

Therefore, you would dispense 1,200 tablets of doxycycline for the full 30-day treatment.

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