the nurse is caring for a client with an elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (tsh) level. which assessments are consistent with this finding? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer 1

For a nurse caring for a client with an elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, the assessments are consistent with these findings:

a. Constipationb. Weight gainc. EdemaWhat causes elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level?

An elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is typically indicative of an underactive thyroid gland, a condition known as hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism can be caused by a variety of factors, including Autoimmune thyroid disease (Hashimoto's thyroiditis), Medications, e.t.c.

A high TSH level is typically a sign that the body is trying to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones. If left untreated, hypothyroidism can cause a range of symptoms, including fatigue, weight gain, depression, and dry skin.

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The complete question:

he nurse is caring for a client with an elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Which assessments are consistent with this finding? Select all that apply.

a. Constipation

b. Weight gain

c. Edema

d. Tachycardia

e. Restlessness and anxiety


Related Questions

What is Science..?
.......No Spam........​

Answers

Answer:

the intellectual and practical activity encompassing the systematic study of the structure and behaviour of the physical and natural world through observation and experiment.

Which of the following serologic markers indicate HBV clearance?
a.
HbSAg.

b.
HbCAg IgG antibody.

c.
HbCAg IgM antibody.

d.
HbSAg Antibody.

e.
HbCAg

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

Q: How have the fields of anatomy and physiology changed over time and what led to these changes?

Answers

they have changed through technological advancements and societies advancements

Given what you have learned about brain structure and function, how might an individual lose their sight or their hearing but not have direct damage to their eyes or ears?

Answers

By injuring the part of the brain that is connected to these senses. Either by closed or open injury. Including but not limited to stroke, blow to head or violent shaking.

An individual can lose their sight or their hearing but not have direct damage to their eyes or ears when the part of the brain connected to the senses is injured.

The brain is important as it helps in controlling our thoughts, speech, and memory. It is also vital in making the organs in the body function. The brain also coordinates and controls the things that we do.

It should be noted that the auditory cortex is the part of the brain that helps in processing auditory information in human beings. Also, the occipital lobe is the part of the brain responsible for vision.

For human beings to hear well, the auditory system must work normally so that sound can be able to pass through different parts of the ear into the person's brain.

In conclusion, when the occipital lobe and the auditory cortex are damaged, it affects one's vision and hearing.

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Given what you have learned about brain structure and function, how might an individual lose their sight

Explain what was wrong with this plan. Since a Grignard reagent contains a carbon atom with a partial (select) charge, it acts as a (select) and reacts with the OH of the starting

Answers

The strategy's comprehension of the Grignard reagents' characteristics, reactions, and interactions with the hydroxyl group (OH) of the starting compound is incorrect.

A misperception of the Grignard reagents' properties and reactions is the cause of the flaws in the proposed method. A carbon atom is bonded to a metal, usually magnesium, with a partial negative charge to form an organometallic compound known as a Grignard reagent.

It has a high rate of reactivity and participates in reactions as a nucleophile. However, the claim makes an incorrect reference to a "partial select charge" on the carbon atom. In a Grignard reagent, the carbon atom has a partial negative charge rather than a partial select charge.

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Carafate 1 g p.o.
Identify the component missing in the order.

Answers

Answer: Frequency

Explanation:

Without frequency ex once daily; every 4 hrs, etc. You don't know when to give the med

Ling brought her little fox terrier, Sparks, on vacation with her. One thing she forgot was Sparks’ insulin. Ling goes to a local pharmacy to see if she can get insulin for Sparks. The pharmacist says that they are out of synthetic insulin, but they have beef-based insulin. How will Ling MOST likely react to this news? She will thank the pharmacist because Sparks can use beef-based insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because dogs can only use synthetic insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic. She will just plan to forgo giving Sparks his insulin for the trip.

Answers

She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic.

which system works with the skeletal system to give nutrients to the bone?

Answers

the digestive and circulatory are the two systems that get nutrients to the bone cells

a home health care nurse makes an initial visit to a client and determines that the client meets the criteria for services with medicare reimbursement. the nurse understands that this service will be reimbursed for which period?

Answers

The service will be reimbursed for a period of 60 days.

A home health care nurse performs an initial visit to a client and determines that the client meets the criteria for services with Medicare reimbursement. The nurse understands that this service will be reimbursed for a period of: 60 days .Medicare reimburses home health care services in 60-day episodes, provided that the client meets the eligibility criteria.After the initial visit, the nurse will assess the client’s condition and develop a plan of care for the period. The nurse will then submit documentation to Medicare for reimbursement for the services provided during that 60-day period.

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Complete question: A home health care nurse performs an initial visit to a client and determines that the client meets the criteria for services with Medicare reimbursement. The nurse understands that this service will be reimbursed for which period?

A)30 days

B)60 days

C)90 days

D)120 days

What might happen to the patient if your measurements were off by 5 mL on your unit dose cups of 30 mL?

Answers

Answer:

HVJGDFFGJDGJFDRFJN TJRFTGMTGJR DET

Explanation:

When a animal die how long does the fluid stay in there body

Answers

Answer:

24-72 hours postmortem: internal organs begin to decompose due to cell death; the body begins to emit pungent odors; rigor mortis subsides. 3-5 days postmortem: as organs continue to decompose, bodily fluids leak from orifices; the skin turns a greenish color.

Answer:

Seminal fluid dries out very quickly when it's outside the body

and once it's dried, the sperm die almost at once.

Explanation:

Radius bone is lateral to ulna bone *
True or False

Answers

The correct answer is true.
The correct answer is true

9:01
7
01.
The four (4) phases of a complex movement are?

Answers

Answer:

Every movement skill can be broken down into four main components: preparation/preliminary movement, force production, critical instant and the recovery/follow-through. These are called the phases of movement.

Explanation:

the fmri evidence suggests that the brain areas that are activated for inanimate objects will

Answers

Brain areas that are activated for inanimate objects will show neural responses related to object recognition and categorization, but without the involvement of social or emotional processing.

When examining brain activity using fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging), researchers have found distinct patterns of activation in response to different types of stimuli, including animate (living) and inanimate (non-living) objects. The brain areas involved in processing inanimate objects primarily include regions such as the lateral occipital cortex, parietal cortex, and fusiform gyrus. These areas are responsible for visual perception, object recognition, and categorization.

When individuals view inanimate objects, these brain regions exhibit increased activity as they process the visual features and form representations of the objects. However, the activation in these areas is primarily associated with object-related information, such as shape, size, and color, rather than social or emotional aspects. In contrast, when people view animate objects, additional brain areas associated with social cognition and emotional processing, such as the medial prefrontal cortex and the amygdala, are also engaged.

The activation patterns observed in fMRI studies provide insights into the functional specialization of different brain regions and their involvement in specific cognitive processes. By understanding how the brain responds to different stimuli, researchers can gain a better understanding of how perception and cognition are organized and how different neural systems contribute to our experience of the world.

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17. The first model of communication is said to have been developed by a) Plato b) Aristotle c) Ptolemy d) Steiner involves a single source transmittin d ) Scanning 17. The first model of communication is said to have been developed by a ) Plato b ) Aristotle c ) Ptolemy d ) Steiner ​

Answers

The first person to establish a model of communication is Aristotle of Ancient Greece (Option B).

What is the first model of communication?

The first model of communication was put together by the man called Aristotle and was based on asking questions and the explanation of observations.

Thus, the first person to establish a model of communication is Aristotle of Ancient Greece (Option B).

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Writing prompt: Write an argumentative essay for or against maintaining traditional coming-of-age ceremonies, such as a bar mitzvah or a quince

Answers

Answer:

a quince is a party for when a mexican girl is turning fifteen and her parents are telling her that she is finally responsible of taking care of herself. Americans celebrate it even though it is a mexican tradition and it should not be celebrated. it should only be celebrated by mexicans ONLY.

Explanation:

have a nice day!

To optimize an athlete's performance in training and competition, attention to food and beverage intake must be considered _____________ their activity. Group of answer choices

Answers

Answer:

meow

Explanation:

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?
A. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.
B. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.
D. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

Answers

The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury or wound produced by the gunshot. Thus, the correct option is B.

What is wound?

Wounds are the injuries that tear the skin or any other body tissues. Wounds include cuts, scrapes, scratches, and punctured skin. They can often happen because of an accident, however surgery, sutures, and stitches can also cause wounds. Minor wounds usually aren't that serious, but it is important to clean them to prevent any further infection.

A gunshot wound is a penetrating injury which is caused by a projectile from a gun fire. The damages may include bleeding, bone fractures, organ damage, wound, and, in more severe cases, death. Damage caused by gunshot depends on the part of the body hit by it, the path which the bullet follows through the body, and the speed of the bullet.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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the nurse is conducting allergy skin testing on a client. which postprocedure interventions are most appropriate? select all that apply.

Answers

When a nurse is conducting allergy skin testing on a client, the following post-procedure interventions are most appropriate:

Observation, documentation, monitoring, and education.The allergy skin testing is the diagnostic examination that helps in determining if a client is allergic to specific allergens.

The most appropriate interventions that the nurse should take into account during the postprocedure of allergy skin testing are Observation:

The nurse should observe the client to check for any allergic reactions or symptoms, such as swelling or itching.

Observation should be made for a period of 20-30 minutes to detect any potential reactions. Documentation:

The nurse should document the procedure and results in the client's medical record. This helps in tracking any changes in the client's medical history and treatment plan.

Monitory:

The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs like blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate to detect any potential signs of an allergic reaction. The nurse should also provide any needed medication as per the doctor's prescription.

Education:

The nurse should educate the client on the procedure's outcomes and side effects. Additionally, the nurse should advise the client on the potential side effects and provide tips to minimize allergic reactions if they experience them.

About Allergy

Allergy is a reaction of the body's immune system that occurs due to a substance or substance called an allergen. These substances are considered dangerous by the body, even though they are not. This is what then results in the appearance of symptoms. The cause of allergies is a response that arises from the immune system to certain substances that are considered harmful to your body. Although until now it is not clear why this can happen, but most cases of allergies occur due to heredity.

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the nurse is preparing to perform a focused respiratory assessment on a client. the nurse should be cognizant of what anatomical characteristic

Answers

The nurse is getting ready to perform a focused respiratory evaluation on a client; as a result, the nurse should be aware of some anatomical characteristics, including: Where the respiratory system is located, The respiratory system's performance, The respiratory system's design and The body's respiratory system's function

A focused respiratory assessment can provide valuable information to healthcare professionals about the patient's health and respiratory status. A respiratory assessment involves a thorough examination of the chest and lungs, as well as a review of the patient's medical history. A nurse performing a respiratory assessment should be aware of certain anatomical characteristics of the respiratory system, which can help identify any potential issues or problems that the patient may be experiencing.

The nurse should be cognizant of the following anatomical characteristics when performing a focused respiratory assessment:

1. The location of the respiratory system - The respiratory system is located in the chest cavity, between the diaphragm and the clavicles.

2. The function of the respiratory system - The respiratory system is responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment.

3. The structure of the respiratory system - The respiratory system consists of the lungs, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, and trachea.

4. The role of the respiratory system in the body - The respiratory system plays a vital role in the body's immune system, as well as in the regulation of body temperature and blood pH levels.

When performing a respiratory assessment, the nurse should evaluate the patient's respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and effort, as well as their oxygen saturation levels. Additionally, the nurse should ask the patient about any symptoms they may be experiencing, such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, or chest pain. By identifying any potential issues or problems with the patient's respiratory system, the nurse can provide appropriate treatment and care to improve the patient's respiratory health.

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3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?​

Answers

The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.

What is EDTA?

EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.

EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.

EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.

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a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily. what course of action should the nurse take in order to prevent legal complications

Answers

To prevent legal complications when a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily, the nurse should:

Familiarize themselves with relevant laws and regulations.

Ensure proper documentation.

Follow proper procedures.

Respect the client's rights.

Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team.

Continuous monitoring and reassessment.

In order to prevent legal complications when a client is admitted into the mental health unit involuntarily, the nurse should take the following course of action:

Familiarize themselves with relevant laws and regulations: The nurse should have a thorough understanding of the legal framework governing involuntary admissions and mental health treatment in their jurisdiction. This includes being knowledgeable about applicable mental health acts, policies, and procedures.Ensure proper documentation: Accurate and detailed documentation is crucial in the mental health setting. The nurse should meticulously document the client's condition, reasons for the involuntary admission, assessments, interventions, and any significant changes in the client's status. This documentation should be timely, objective, and reflect the client's best interests.Follow proper procedures: The nurse should strictly adhere to the established procedures and protocols for involuntary admissions. This involves obtaining necessary legal authorizations and completing required forms or documentation as per institutional guidelines.Respect the client's rights: Even though the client is admitted involuntarily, they still have rights that must be respected. The nurse should ensure that the client's rights to confidentiality, dignity, privacy, and autonomy are protected. Any interventions or treatments should be conducted with the client's informed consent, or in accordance with legal provisions for involuntary treatment.Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team: Mental health care involves a multidisciplinary approach. The nurse should collaborate with the client's treatment team, including psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers, and legal professionals, to ensure that all aspects of the client's care align with legal requirements and ethical standards.Continuous monitoring and reassessment: Regular monitoring and reassessment of the client's condition are essential. The nurse should promptly identify and report any changes or concerns to the appropriate healthcare professionals, ensuring timely interventions and treatment modifications.

By following these actions, the nurse can help prevent legal complications and ensure that the client's rights and legal requirements are upheld during their involuntary admission in the mental health unit.

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I need help on this please help

I need help on this please help

Answers

I think the first question is a UTI because he has a history of uti's and the urine is brown and cloudy

a patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. no problems develop. what diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits?

Answers

The O09.893, Z3A.30 diagnostic code is reported for these three additional visits for Pre-eclampsia.

Pre-eclampsia usually begins after the 20th week of pregnancy in women with normal blood pressure. It can cause serious and even fatal complications for both mother and child. No symptoms occur. Hypertension and proteinuria are the main features. Also, the legs may be swollen or swollen, but this may be difficult to distinguish from a normal pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia can often be treated with oral or intravenous drugs until the baby is mature enough to deliver. This often involves weighing the risk of preterm birth against the risk of persistent preeclamptic symptoms.  

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Why in the blood you cant see free iron and copper?

Answers

Answer:

It thus seems likely that both iron and copper deficiency can occur in selected populations .

A. According to the chapter, would you categorize the stress as Catastrophic, Major Life Change, or a Hassle
B. What do you normally tell yourself when you experience that stress?
C. What emotion typically comes up for you?
D. How do you typically respond to this experience?
E. How could you change your self-talk or how you think about the stressor to reduce its impact on you.
2. Share 1 thing you found interesting and 1 new thing you learned from this chapter.
3. identify 3 behaviors you can regularly engage in to manage

Answers

Answer:

We live in a society in which changes are happening at great speed, both economically, politically and socially. With technology and consumption at the center, all this maelstrom - whether we like it or not - ends up affecting our personal lives. As Emma Ribas, clinical psychologist, says, “our society is experiencing a paradigm shift. Before, everything was forever, work, a partner, a home ... Now everything is constantly changing and nothing is forever ”.

Explanation

For Isaac López, author of the book Change, the characteristics of the changes we are experiencing now are, without a doubt, “speed, disruption and globality”. The changes of opinion to each and every facet of our life and force us to be in an attitude of permanent alert. Change we have had to change our entire difference is that now we are facing a disruptive change

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Is 14/25 greater then 3/5

Answers

Answer:

yes although

5

3

is greater than

14

25

Explanation:

10. Patient's wt: 66 lb Medication order: 0.8 mg/kg Stock medication: 40 mg/2 mL. How many mL will
you give?
11. Patient's wt: 98 lb Medication order: 0.2 mg/kg Stock medication: 20 mg/mL. How many mL will you
give?
12. Patient's wt: 68 lb Medication order: 0.6 mg/kg Stock medication: 50 mg/mL. How many mL will you
give?

Answers

Answer:number Patient's weight: 63 lb. Medication order: 0.5 mg/kg. Stock medication: 25 mg/2mL. that is number 10.  Order: Dopamine 20 mcg/Kg/minute. The bag is labeled Dopamine 100 mg/50 ml. The patient weighs 88 lbs this is number 11.

A child in gymnastics class has fallen off the balance beam and hurt her ankle. X-rays are negative for fracture, so the health care provider has diagnosed a severe sprain. Which of the following treatment measures should be taught to the family and child? Choose all that apply.
A. Immobilization
B. Elevate the ankle on pillows
C. Apply ice packs to the ankle
D. Perform active and passive range-of-motion exercises daily

Answers

Based on the information provided, the following treatment measures should be taught to the family and child for a severe sprain:

A. Immobilization: Immobilizing the ankle helps prevent further injury and promotes healing. It can be achieved through methods such as splinting, bracing, or using a cast, depending on the severity of the sprain. Immobilization helps stabilize the ankle and allows the damaged ligaments to heal.

B. Elevate the ankle on pillows: Elevating the injured ankle above the level of the heart helps reduce swelling. Placing pillows or cushions under the ankle while resting can aid in reducing inflammation and promote fluid drainage.

C. Apply ice packs to the ankle: Applying ice packs or cold compresses to the injured ankle can help reduce pain, swelling, and inflammation. Ice should be applied for 15-20 minutes at a time, with intervals of 1-2 hours. It is important to use a towel or cloth between the ice pack and the skin to prevent ice burn.

D. Perform active and passive range-of-motion exercises daily: In the case of a severe sprain, it is generally recommended to avoid early active range-of-motion exercises as they may exacerbate the injury. However, passive range-of-motion exercises, where the injured ankle is moved gently by an external force (such as a physical therapist), can be beneficial to maintain joint mobility and prevent stiffness. The exercises should be performed under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

It's important to note that while these measures can be generally recommended for a severe sprain, the specific treatment plan should be discussed with and advised by a healthcare professional based on the individual's condition and needs.

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A small dog that was mask induced with sevoflurane for removal of retained deciduous canine teeth is exhibiting hyperventilation, rapid heart rate, and head movement whenever the extraction is attempted, but there is no response to a toe pinch. Premedication consisted of acepromazine, and the sevoflurane is being delivered at 5% with an oxygen flow rate of 1 liter per minute using a rebreathing circuit. The most appropriate response is:______.

Answers

Increase the Sevoflurane
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