What is the image point of (9, -2) after a translation right 3 units and down 4 units?

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of parallelogram = base×height

= 13×5

= 65m²

The given functions ψ = 2xy and φ = x^2 - y^2 satisfy the conditions for continuity and irrotational flow.

To show continuity, we need to verify that the partial derivatives of ψ and φ with respect to x and y are equal. Let's calculate these partial derivatives:

∂ψ/∂x = 2y

∂ψ/∂y = 2x

∂φ/∂x = 2x

∂φ/∂y = -2y

From the above calculations, we can see that the partial derivatives of ψ and φ with respect to x and y are equal. Therefore, the condition for continuity, which requires the equality of partial derivatives, is satisfied.

To show irrotational flow, we need to verify that the curl of the velocity vector is zero. The velocity vector can be obtained from the stream function ψ and velocity potential φ as follows:

V = ∇φ x ∇ψ

Taking the curl of V:

∇ x V = ∇ x (∇φ x ∇ψ)

Using vector calculus identities and simplifying the expression, we find:

∇ x V = 0

Since the curl of the velocity vector is zero, the condition for irrotational flow is satisfied.

Therefore, based on the calculations and verifications, we can conclude that the given functions ψ = 2xy and φ = x^2 - y^2 satisfy the conditions for continuity and irrotational flow.

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The volume of the nose cone of height 15 feet is 84.78 ft³.

Volume is defined as the space occupied within the boundaries of any three-dimensional solid.

To calculate the volume of the nose cone, we use the formula below.

Formula:

Where:

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 1

Hence, the volume of the nose cone is 84.78 ft³.

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The polynomial that is factored completely is (4x+4)(x+1)

Find the complete question attached.

From the given option, you can see that both options A, C, and D contain terms with degrees of 2 and 3 except option B. Therefore, the polynomial that is factored completely is (4x+4)(x+1)

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Answer:

Its A

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2022

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

34.95

Answer:

this is the answer fod this lroblsm

They will both have worked 140 hours when Jared has worked for 28 more days and Clementine has worked for 28 days.

Let's start by defining some variables. Let j represent the total number of hours Jared has worked so far, and let c represent the total number of hours Clementine has worked so far. We can then write two equations based on the information given:

j = 70 + 2.5d where d is the number of days Jared plans to work in the future

c = 5d where d is the number of days Clementine plans to work in the future

To find when they will have worked the same number of hours, we need to solve for d in both equations and set them equal to each other:

70 + 2.5d = 5d

Simplifying this equation:

70 = 2.5d

d = 28

Therefore, it will take Jared 28 more days of working 2.5 hours each day to have worked the same number of hours as Clementine, who plans to work 5 hours per day. We can find the total number of hours they will have worked by substituting d = 28 into either equation:

j = 70 + 2.5(28) = 140

c = 5(28) = 140

So they will both have worked 140 hours when Jared has worked for 28 more days and Clementine has worked for 28 days.

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Answer:

43 Sets for 650

Step-by-step explanation:

Just do division.

Hope this helps :-)

Answer:

ok

Step-by-step explanation:

12

2

2

2

2

2

3

Answer:

21.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Take 151.9/ 7 and that is your answer. All you have to do is divide.

The PERT expected activity time for this activity is 6 days.

To compute the PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) expected activity time, we can use the formula:

Expected Time = (Optimistic Time + 4 * Most Likely Time + Pessimistic Time) / 6

Using the given values, we have:

Optimistic Time = 2 days

Most Likely Time = 5 days

Pessimistic Time = 14 days

Substituting these values into the formula:

Expected Time = (2 + 4 * 5 + 14) / 6

Expected Time = (2 + 20 + 14) / 6

Expected Time = 36 / 6

Expected Time = 6

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Answer:

11.11%

Step-by-step explanation:

We can first convert the fraction \(\frac{1}{9}\) into a decimal.

We know that a number over 9 will be 0.(that number repeating), for example, \(\frac{4}{9}\) is 0.444444...

So this means that \(\frac{1}{9}\) will be 0.11111...

Converting \(0.\overline{11}\) into a percentage is easy - we just multiply by 100.

This get us \(11.\overline{11}\)%, which rounds to 11.11%.

Hope this helped!

The given information is as follows:A random sample of 150 teachers in an​ inner-city school district found that​ 72% of them had volunteered time to a local charitable cause within the past 12 months.

The formula for calculating the standard error of sample proportion is given as:$$Standard\(\ error=\frac{\sqrt{pq}}{n}$$\)where:p = proportion of success in the sampleq = proportion of failure in the samplen = sample sizeGiven:Sample proportion, p = 72% or 0.72Sample size, n = 150

The proportion of failure in the sample can be calculated as:q = 1 - p= 1 - 0.72= 0.28Substituting the known values in the above formula, we get:\($$Standard \ error=\frac{\sqrt{pq}}{n}$$$$=\frac{\sqrt{0.72(0.28)}}{150}$$$$=0.0372$$\)Rounding off to the nearest thousandth, we get the standard error of sample proportion as 0.037

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Mark two points on the line in the graph.

2) Determine the rise and run. Rise ---> difference in y-coordinates. (y2-y1)

Run -----> difference in  x-coordinates (x2 - x1)

3) Plugin the values in the below mentioned formula.

\(Slope = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)

1.If slope = 0, then the line is parallel to x-axis.

2. If slope is undefined, then the line is parallel to y-axis.

3. If slope is +ve, then the line slant upwards and if slope = -ve, then the line slant downwards.

Answer:

0.325

Step-by-step explanation:

thats it

Answer:

0.325 kg

Step-by-step explanation:

You move the decimal point three places to the left, and end up with 0.325 kg.  :)

Answer:

Part 1) 2 and 3

Part 2) C = 135

Step-by-step explanation:

Railroad:

2 and 3 because 1 is the transversal

Supplementary:

x - 50 + 19 = 180

Add 50 to both side

x + 19 = 230

Subtract 19 from both side

x = 211

Algebra:

C = ?

D = 45

Substitute x or C

x + 45 = 180

Subtract 45 from both side

x = 135

C = 135

The standard deviation of the sample mean is also known as the standard error of the mean. It can be calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size. In this case, the population standard deviation is $2 and the sample size is 100. So, the standard deviation of the sample mean is $2/sqrt(100) = $2/10 = $0.2. Is there anything else you would like to know?

I'm sorry to bother you but can you please mark me BRAINLEIST if this ans is helpfull

Answer:

$22.17

Step-by-step explanation:

105.36 multiplyed by 0.22 ( you need to change the 22% to a decimal so just make it 0.22) then once you multiplyed them then you get your answer.

Answer:

$7,359.65

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the amount that to be deposited is shown below:

Here we have to calculate the present value

As we know that

Present value = future value ÷(1+ rate of interest)^years

where,

rate of interest = 12.2% ÷ 4 = 3.05%

And, the years is = 5 × 4 = 20

Now the present value is

= $13,422 ÷ (1+ 3.05%)^20

= $7,359.65

Answer:

11.6 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

9.3^2+6.9^2 = 134.1

sqrt134.1 = approx 11.6

Answer:

c= 11.6 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

c =√(a²+b²)= √(9.3²+6.9²)= 11.6mi

The value of each share of common stock, rounded to the nearest penny, is approximately $66.61 according to the given information and values in the question.

step by step:

To calculate the value of each share of common stock using the Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) valuation model, we need to discount the expected future cash flows to their present value and subtract the market value of the outstanding debt. The formula for calculating the value of each share of common stock is:

Value per Share = (Present Value of Future Cash Flows - Debt) / Number of Common Shares

To calculate the present value of future cash flows, we discount each cash flow using the cost of capital.

Let's calculate the present value of future cash flows and the value per share of common stock:

Year 1: FCF = $250,000

Year 2: FCF = $300,000

Year 3: FCF = $350,000

Year 4: FCF = $400,000

Year 5: FCF = $450,000

\(Year 6 onwards: FCF = $450,000 * 1.022^(Year - 5)\)

Cost of Capital = 6.65%

Outstanding Debt = $3,833,340

Number of Common Shares = 60,797

First, let's calculate the present value of future cash flows:

\(PV = FCF / (1 + r)^n\)

where:

PV = Present Value

FCF = Future Cash Flow

r = Cost of Capital

n = Number of years

\(Year 1:PV1 = $250,000 / (1 + 0.0665)^1 ≈ $234,837.45Year 2:PV2 = $300,000 / (1 + 0.0665)^2 ≈ $268,084.17Year 3:PV3 = $350,000 / (1 + 0.0665)^3 ≈ $301,706.42Year 4:PV4 = $400,000 / (1 + 0.0665)^4 ≈ $335,693.63Year 5:PV5 = $450,000 / (1 + 0.0665)^5 ≈ $369,035.06Year 6 onwards:PV6 = $450,000 * 1.022^(Year - 5) / (1 + 0.0665)^Year\)

Now, let's calculate the total present value of future cash flows:

\(Total PV = PV1 + PV2 + PV3 + PV4 + PV5 + ∑(PV6)\)

∑(PV6) represents the sum of present values for Year 6 onwards, up to infinity. Since we have a constant growth rate of 2.2%, we can use the perpetuity formula to calculate this sum:

\(∑(PV6) = PV6 / (r - g)\)

where:

r = Cost of Capital

g = Growth rate

\(∑(PV6) = PV6 / (0.0665 - 0.022) = PV6 / 0.0445Now, let's calculate PV6 and ∑(PV6):PV6 = $450,000 * 1.022^1 / (1 + 0.0665)^6 ≈ $303,212.65∑(PV6) = $303,212.65 / 0.0445 ≈ $6,820,510.11\)

Next, let's calculate the total present value:

\(Total PV = PV1 + PV2 + PV3 + PV4 + PV5 + ∑(PV6)Total PV = $234,837.45 + $268,084.17 + $301,706.42 + $335,693.63 + $369,035.06 + $6,820,510.11Total PV ≈ $8,329,866.84\)

Finally, let's calculate the value per share of common stock:

Value per Share = (Total PV - Debt) / Number of Common Shares

Value per Share = ($8,329,866.84 - $3,833,340) / 60,797

Value per Share ≈ $66.61

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Answer:

1 unique

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the angles of the triangle in the question, only one unique triangle can be formed.

This is because, if we look at the angles given, we can see that we have two of the angles equal.

This will give rise to the formation of an isosceles triangle which is a triangle in which two of the sides are equal in length

The equal angles made it in such a way that this is the only type of triangle that can be formed from the angles given

Answer:35

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cylinder is calculated by multiplying the area of its base by its height. The formula for the volume of a cylinder is V = πr²h, where r is the radius of the base and h is the height.

The volume of a cone is calculated by multiplying the area of its base by its height and then dividing by 3. The formula for the volume of a cone is V = (1/3)πr²h, where r is the radius of the base and h is the height.

Since Sonequa’s two containers have equal radii and equal heights, it can be concluded that the volume of the cylinder is three times the volume of the cone. This means that if Sonequa fills the cone with water and pours it into the cylinder, she will need to repeat this process three times to fill the cylinder completely.

So, the claim that is most likely to be supported using the result of Sonequa’s investigation is: “The volume of a cylinder with the same radius and height as a cone is three times greater than the volume of the cone.”

The cost of 5 pairs of shoes is 108.78 dollars.

The cost of 3 pairs of shoes is $65.27. At this price, the cost of 5 pairs of shoes can be calculated as follows:

Let's find the cost of each pair of shoes before we can get the cost of 5 pairs of shoes.

Therefore,

3 pairs of shoe = 65.27 dollars

1 pair of shoes = ?

cross multiply

cost of each pair = 65.27 / 3

cost of each pair = 21.76 dollars

Therefore, the cost of 5 pairs of shoes can be found as follows:

cost of 5 pairs of shoes = 21.76 × 5

cost of 5 pairs of shoes = 108.783333333

Therefore,

cost of 5 pairs of shoes = 108.78 dollars

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Answer:

a = 7/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Write equation

6a - (2a + 4) = 11 - 3(a - 2)

Step 2: Solve for a

Answer:

X equals 3 so that will be C?

Answer:

Only C

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple multiplication that can be checked using a calculator.

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

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After 6 weeks, the size of the bacteria is 1600, and after 15 weeks, the size of the bacteria is 12800

Let N₀ be the initial number of bacteria in a population and r be the growth rate of the bacteria.

The doubling time t doubles the population after each time interval t, hence:

Nt = N₀ × 2^(t/t) Nₜ

= N₀ × 2^(t/d)Nt/N₀

= 2^(t/d)ln(Nₜ/N₀)

= (t/d)ln2ln(Nₜ) - ln(N₀)

= (t/d)ln2ln(Nₜ/N₀)

= (t/d)ln2t/d

= ln(Nt/N₀) / ln2

Now, we can calculate the time required for the population to double in size as

t = d × ln2/ln(Nₜ/N₀)

Now, let's substitute the values given and solve:

a) After 6 weeks, t = 3 weeks (since doubling time is 3 weeks)

So, Nₜ/N₀ = 2^(t/d)

= 2^(6/3)

= 2^2 = 4

Nt = N₀ × 4

= 100 × 4

= 400.

After 6 weeks, the size of the bacteria is 400.

b) After 15 weeks,

t = d × ln2/ln(Nₜ/N₀)ₜ

= 3 × ln2/ln(128)

= 3 × 0.9983/7.1554

= 0.4186 weeks

So, Nₜ/N₀ = 2^(t/d)

= 2^(15/3)

= 2^5

= 32Nₜ

= N₀ × 32 = 100 × 32

= 3200

After 15 weeks, the size of the bacteria is 3200.

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